DENTAL ASSISTANT ONLINE EXAM PRACTICE KIT 5
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How long should a patient take to brush his or her teeth?
When evaluating a patient’s oral hygiene, ask how much time is spent brushing teeth. The time should be 2 minutes, but most people only spend a fraction of the time necessary.
On which class of cavity would you expect to use a glass isonomer restorative material?
Glass isonomer restorative materials are used on Class V cavity restorations. They may also be used on primary teeth, as sealants, and on root surfaces.
The assistant zone for an assistant working with a left-handed operator will be in which of the following positions?
For a left-handed operator, the assistant zone is from 8 to 10 o’clock. This is true regardless of the handedness of the assistant.
An example of a non-expendable dental material might include
Many items in the dental clinic are expendable. The dental assistant should always check for an expiration date on any new item he or she uses. An example of a non-expendable material would be a metallic temporary crown.
Complete inventory of a dental clinic should be performed at least:
Complete inventory of dental clinic supplies and equipment should be performed at least annually. Bi-annual inventory ensures that the clinic can meet seasonal demands.
For which of the following procedures would you choose a vulcanite bur?
Vulcanite (or laboratory) burs are for use on acrylic, stone, plaster, and metal materials such as dentures. They should never be used intraorally.
What is the role of a rubber dam in endodontic procedures?
Rubber dams should be used to isolate the effected tooth or teeth during any endodontic procedure. Rubber dams help to preserve a working field and allow the operator to focus on the area being treated.
The purpose of an aspirating syringe is which of the following?
An aspirating syringe allows the operator to check for injections into the bloodstream. Because injecting anesthetics into the bloodstream can be dangerous or fatal, this is a key step in dental procedures.
The laboratory handpiece can be used to do all but which of the following?
The laboratory handpiece is used to trim and contour both provisional and permanent crowns and bridges. It may also be used to polish dentures.
When mixing amalgam, which of the following is the correct ratio of metal alloy to mercury?
When mixing amalgam, mix equal parts of metal alloy to mercury. This process is known as titration.
The loose connective tissue found inside teeth is known as which of the following?
Teeth contain dental pulp, which is a loose connective tissue. Dental pulp is rich in vessels and nerves.
The surface of a tooth closest to the tongue is known as the _________
The surface of the tooth closest to the tongue is known as the lingual surface. The shape and texture of this surface varies with the type of tooth and tooth placement.
When preparing to remove calculus, which of the following is the role of an exploratory stroke?
An exploratory stroke is used to determine the shape of the deposit. The instrument should not be inserted below the gingiva.
Controlled substances are categorized under
Controlled substances are classified according to schedules. The Controlled Substances Act has established Schedules I -IV to regulated certain drugs. This system considers a drug’s potential for misuse as well as its medical application.
Which of the following would you choose to scrape and widen a very narrow, curved canal during endodontic treatment?
Files are used to scrape and widen canals during endodontic treatment. If you must scrape and widen a narrow or curved canal, a flex file is the appropriate instrument.
When preparing a syringe of anesthetic, you notice that the glass carpule has large bubbles in it. Which of the following is an appropriate next step?
Discard the carpule and assemble the syringe with another Large bubbles are a sign that air has entered the carpule. Carpules with large bubbles should be discarded.
A toothbrushing technique in which the side of the brush is placed against the tooth, with the bristles facing occlusally, and then is slid to a 45 degree angle to the gingival margin, is known as which of the following?
In the Charter’s stroke, the side of the brush is placed against the tooth, with the bristles facing occlusally. It is then slid into a 45 degree angle with the gingival margin. The brush should be pressed into the margin and proximal areas and vibrated for at least 10 strokes.
Which of the following calls for impacted extraction?
Impacted teeth are unable to erupt because they are impeded by soft tissue or bone. This requires an extraction and typically happens under conscious sedation.
When placing temporary cement, which of the following is recommended?
Using too much cement or filling the cavity with cement may inhibit the placement of the temporary restoration. It also results in unnecessary wasted material and clean up time. Cement should be placed around the internal margin of the replacement area only.
Diamond burs may be used for all but which of the following procedures?
Diamond burs are used to quickly reduce tooth structure during cavity restoration. They are also used to polish composite restorations, contour bone and gingiva, and adjust occlusions. They are not appropriate for trimming or finishing metal restorations.
Which of the following is the appropriate working distance between the patient’s oral cavity and the operator’s nose?
A working distance of 14 to 18 inches between the patient’s oral cavity and the operator’s nose should be maintained at all times. The oral cavity should be at the height of the operator’s elbow.
Nausea, weakness, shortness of breath and pain radiating in the arm, jaw and face are symptoms of:
Myocardial infarction symptoms include nausea, weakness, shortness of breath, and pain radiating in the arm, jaw and face. When this situation arises, CPR should be administered immediately.
Which of the following would you use to locate a high spot on a restoration?
Green in color, indicator wax is used to locate high spots on restorations. It may also be used for registering occlusional contacts.
Which of the following instruments would you use to remove subgingival calculus?
The periodontal chisel can be used to remove subgingival calculus. Sickles and jacquettes should be used to remove supragingival calculus.
Which tooth is indicated by 22 in the Universal Numbering System?
The Universal Numbering System assigns a unique number to each tooth, making for easier charting. The right maxillary third molar is designated 1, and the count continues to the left. This makes the left mandibular canine 22.
You are collecting clinical data with a patient who has a full coverage crown on one of her back molars. How would you chart this?
A full coverage crown can be indicated by circling the entire tooth in blue on the diagram. If the patient has restorations of different materials, it may be useful to make this distinction with colors on the chart
For which of the following would you use a gingival margin trimmer?
Sometimes called GMTs, gingival margin trimmers are used to trim and smooth the gingival floor. This prepares the area for tooth restoration.
Which of the following is considered the dental industry’s “gold standard” in restorative materials?
This material is the material by which all other options are judged. It is superior in terms of strength of bond, longevity, and ease of use.
Which of the following is NOT a correct technique to employ when removing calculus
Shaving the calculus can leave thin layers that are indistinguishable from the tooth. This can lead to new plaque formation.
Which of the following is the appropriate working distance between the patient’s oral cavity and the operator’s nose?
A working distance of 14 to 18 inches between the patient’s oral cavity and the operator’s nose should be maintained at all times. The oral cavity should be at the height of the operator’s elbow
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way to begin nutritional counseling for oral health?
It is important to begin nutritional counseling in a nonjudgmental tone. Patients may be ashamed or defensive about their teeth and oral hygiene habits. Ask the patient about what he or she knows about oral hygiene, and about his or her regular diet, to establish what he or she needs to learn.
Gutta percha is used as a(n):
Gutta percha is a cadmium-based product, containing less than 1% cadmium. It is used as an endodontic material for most root canals.
A patient has diabetes. What may need to be adjusted before a surgical dental procedure?
Patients are required to fast before a surgical procedure. This may require an adjustment in insulin levels. The patient’s doctor should be consulted to determine if an adjustment is necessary.
What is considered hypertensive blood pressure?
Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is hypertensive. The other answers are normal and do not indicate that a patient is in danger. Monitor blood pressure carefully, and be aware of any medications that the patient is taking.
For which of the following procedures would you use utility wax?
Utility wax comes in rope form and is pliable at room temperature. It can provide extra height and padding to impression trays, making the impression process more comfortable for the patient.
All recall postcards should be kept in:
Recall postcards should be kept in a chronological file and mailed out two weeks prior to the appointment. The disadvantage to this method is that it is costly and time-consuming.
If a patient is having an epileptic seizure, he or she should be positioned laterally and given:
If a patient is having an epileptic seizure, he or she should be positioned laterally and given 0.03 mg. of diazepam. It is also important to get immediate medical help if the seizure continues.
Which of the following is the densest gypsum product used in dentistry?
Die stone is the densest gypsum product used in dentistry. It is used to make dies of teeth.
You should chose a flat end tapered diamond bur for which of the following procedures?
Diamond burs are an excellent choice when teeth need to be reduced for crown preparation. When a square shoulder is needed as part of the crown procedure, choose a diamond bur with a tapered end.
A Hollenback carver may be used to do all but which of the following?
The Hollenback carver is used remove excess material, carve occlusal anatomy, and carve interproximal anatomy. It is a double-ended instrument with working ends positioned and different angles.
Which of the following instruments would you choose to debride diseased material from a tooth socket?
Surgical curettes are used to debride the tooth socket or diseased tissue. They may also be used for curettage
Which of the following would you use to remove supragingival calculus from the lingual surface of teeth?
The horizontal stroke should be used with care. The instrument is held parallel to the gingiva and is used to remove calculus from the lingual and facial surfaces of the teeth.
For which of the following procedures would you choose a flame diamond bur?
The diamond bur flame is used to reduce a tooth when a beveled subgingival margin is needed in crown preparation. Like all other diamond burs, this instrument comes in a variety of sizes and grits.
Diabetes places a patient at greater risk for all but which of the following dental complications?
Diabetes may make patients more prone to infections, including gum, tooth, and jaw infections. The dry mouth that accompanies high blood sugar may accelerate tooth decay as well.
patient could suffer from bleeding complications if he or she has a(n) _____ condition.
Patients are at a higher risk of bleeding complications if they have kidney problems. The same is true if there is a problem with liver function
An adult should get which of the following amounts of fluoride each day for optimal dental health?
The daily recommended fluoride intake for an adult is between 1.5 and 4 mg daily. Because fluoride can come from a number of sources, it is key to take into account all potential sources of fluoride before supplementing.
The recommended procedure for a patient going into insulin shock is to:
An oral dose of sugar immediately provides the patient with some relief. Usually orange juice is recommended if the patient is conscious. If the patient is unconscious, placing a cake frosting type of gel under the tongue will achieve the same result.
Which of the following would you choose to open a tooth for endodontic treatment?
A round bur is a cutting bur. It is used to open a cavity and remove carious material. It is also used to open a tooth for endodontic treatment.
How often should a patient change his or her toothbrush?
Patients need to change their toothbrushes at least every three months. They should be replaced sooner when they are worn looking. They also need to be replaced after an illness.
Glass ionomer cement are NOT recommended for which application?
Glass ionomer cements are ideal for non-load bearing restorations. They are used for fissure sealants. Additionally, they release fluoride and are valuable for root caries. They are NOT recommended for load bearing restorations such as large cavities in the tooth structure.
In using the bisecting angle technique, the angulation of the central ray should be:
In using the bisecting angle technique, the angulation of the central ray should be 90 degrees to the imaginary bisector.The bisecting angle technique is based on the geometric principle of isometry.
| What is the arrow on the image pointing to? |
A chronic abscess is typically seen as a lesion on an x-ray. The lesion of abscess located at the root of the tooth extends to the bone supported by the tooth.
Low energy x-ray photons do not add value to the image and
Low energy x-ray photos do not give a good image, and do add to the radiation exposure a patient receives. With the use of a filter, the un-useful beams can be filtered out.
| A LED safelight ______. |
An LED safelight is a red light. There is no need for a filter.
One factor to keep the patient from extra radiation exposure is
There are many factors in making sure proper procedures are followed to minimize patient radiation. These include using fast image receptors, collimation of the beam, properly expose the film, and do not take multiple images.
The cephalometric view in extraoral radiography:
The cephalometric view in extraoral radiography is used to measure changes in arch size. It is commonly used by orthodontists.
In addition to diagnosis, dental radiographs are also commonly used for all of the following EXCEPT for:
Dental x-rays are commonly used for educational purposes, referrals, legal purposes, and insurance claims. They are not commonly using in sales and advertising due to patient confidentiality and HIPAA requirements. When an X-ray is displayed for public use, all identifiers must be removed to protect the privacy of patient health information
When processing an intraoral radiograph in an automatic machine, what would cause the developer to require a shorter time?
The temperature and time for development are related. The higher the temperature for a machine the less time development requires.
Dosimeters perform which function?
Dosimeters do not protect workers from radiation. They do not reduce, filter, or shield workers from radiation. Dosimeters merely report the level of radiation a worker receives.
The penetrating power of the x-ray beam is
The kilovolt peak is the quality of the x-ray beam. Most x-ray machines have a kilovolt of 40-150
Strict adherence to darkroom conditions is important in radiographic processing PRIMARILY because:
Dental radiographic film is highly sensitive to light. Therefore, strict adherence to darkroom conditions is critical to prevent accidental exposure or poor quality results.
Fading of radiographs is caused by:
Fading of radiographs is caused by under-fixed film. The purpose of the fixer is to “fix” the image on the film. Developing errors will not caused fading.
Stochastic effects of radiation show up in an individual within
Stochastic effects of radiation include cancer and genetic mutations. These effects do no manifest in individuals in minutes or even months. Stochastic effects usually take years to finally appear.
If a film is not processed properly
If an operator does not use the correct processing technique, the film will be underdeveloped and retakes will be necessary. The patient will then be exposed to radiation again
A MAJOR difference between digital radiography and conventional radiography is:
A difference between digital radiography and conventional radiography is dental radiography does not require processing. Additionally, digital radiography reduces the exposure of patients to X-ray radiation, especially with intra-oral images.
When properly used, x-ray equipment does NOT:
Properly maintained x-ray equipment does NOT pose a health risk. Proper maintenance includes routine testing, repairs, and inspection. All equipment, even newer equipment, leaks slight amounts of radiation. This amount of radiation, however, does not pose a health risk.
Which of the following films exposes patients to the least amount of radiation?
The film speeds are D, E, and F. F speed is the fastest. It exposes the assistant and patient to less radiation than the other films. It also maintains the image as well as slower speeds.
How long should film be agitated in the rinse tank?
Film should be agitated in the rinse tank. The film should be in the tank for 30 seconds.
A radiation contingency or emergency plan should contain all of the following information EXCEPT for:
The written contingency plan for radiation emergencies should be as detailed and comprehensive as possible. The plan should contain information on the equipment used, manufacturers, emergency contacts, and safety procedures. Personnel records are not essential to a radiation contingency plan.
The term, Rad, is used to illustrate the
The term Rad is used to illustrate the absorbed radiation dose. This is used to get an accurate measurement of radiation.
An increase in the voltage and milliamperes affects the patient by:
The milliamperes (Ma) and peak voltage (kVp) settings are directly related to patient safety. An increase in the milliamperes and voltage on an x-ray device will reduce patient exposure time. These settings are further affected by patient variables such as size and dentition.
Which radiograph should you use if a patient has an impacted wisdom tooth?
Panoramic radiographs are used to look at teeth prior to eruption. This is the best option for taking an image of an impacted wisdom tooth.
If a patient notices redness and inflammation of their skin after an x-ray they may have
X-ray dermatitis is caused by x-rays and leaves the skin red and inflamed. It is also known as an x-ray burn.
What is NOT necessary to create an accurate radiograph
The film speed is related to the exposure time. In order to create an accurate image, the patient and film positioning must be accurate. The exposure time and processing must also be accurate.
Labeling information on mounts should include all of the following information except:
Labeling information on mounts should include all of the following information except the patient’s birthdate. All X-ray film mounts should be kept in the same envelope and filed alphabetically.
Why should the developer solution should be kept covered?
| Dental personnel can minimize cross-contamination by fixer by keeping the developing solutions covered. The developer solutions should also be kept covered to prevent oxidation and evaporation. |
Extraoral films are taken:
Extraoral films are taken outside of the patient’s mouth. They are much larger than intraoral films.
Stacy is trying to identify various radiographs in a patient file, but there are no teeth to serve as landmarks. What other landmark can Stacy use to recognize it as a maxillary molar area radiograph?
The maxillary tuberosity is the convex border of the maxilla, curving upward from the alveolar process and end of the third molar, although an extension of the maxillary sinus can be seen also. If there are not any teeth to help landmark a film or radiograph, Stacy could use this curve aspect to identify the area
What is reticulation?
Reticulation refers to the appearance of film. In reticulation, the film looks as though it is cracked.
Basic dental radiography training should include all of the following EXCEPT for:
Basic dental radiography should cover the hazards of dental radiography, film processing, and instruction on proper techniques for capturing images. In addition to intra-oral technique, the training should cover how to take panoramic films. Dental treatment plans or how to treat the patient is not relevant to basic radiography training.
For the patient’s safety, all x-ray units should be surveyed
Only experts should survey x-ray units. These surveyors are normally from state agencies. It should be done every 4 years or after any change that can affect radiation exposure.
The patient has _____ of the gum and bone.
Periodontal disease (gum disease) is when the gum around the teeth becomes infected and inflamed. This could eventually lead to tooth loss.
What option does digital imaging have that traditionally radiography lacks?
Both traditional and digital radiographs can take clear accurate pictures. Many digital radiographs, however, offer the 3-D images. These are helpful for diagnosing lesions and other morphological changes.
When preparing to mount a patient’s film, the film should be viewed in correct anatomical position, which means the radiographer is what?
Anatomical position includes the patient standing erect and facing forward. When mounting films, they are mounted according to the anatomical position so that body characteristics match up. This means the radiographer is facing the face and their right/left references are according to the patient’s right/left.
In order to examine the dental arches in tracings, which technique would you use?
Cephalometric tracing is done with using pictures taken with cephalometric radiography. This picture of the skull shows the planes and structures. The relationship between the planes and structures helps identify oral health problems.
When the wrong side of the film faces the tube, the result is:
A poor image will be produced when the back of the film faces the tube while the image is being taken. The image will not be clear or accurate.
Personal protective equipment, such as lead aprons, are said to reduce at least ______ of radiation exposure in employees.
Personal protective equipment, such as leaded garments, are an easy way to reduce the amount of radiation exposure to the employee or patient can protect internal organs from radiation damage. However, the garments only reduce up to 80% of the radiation rays, therefore, further measures must be taken to reduce further exposure when possible, such as increasing your distance or reducing exposure time.
What shape should the mandible be in an accurate panoramic image?
In an accurate panoramic, the mandible will have a U-shape. The image will take on a flat look or a V-shape if there is a problem with the patient’s positioning.
What radiation goals should dental operators strive to attain?
Operators should strive to minimize radiation exposure to the least reasonable amount. The ALARA goal applies to both operators and patients in the dental setting.
How far below the apex does the periapical radiograph show?
Periapical radiographs show the structures below the surface. This type of radiograph can show the periapical bone. The image shows 2 to 3 mm below the apex.
Rectangular collimation increase subject contrast by:
One feature of rectangular collimators is they can increase the subject contrast. Because they focus the beam into a narrower area, they reduce excessive scatter, which in turn enhances the subject contrast.
What is used to take a panoramic radiograph?
Film cassettes are used with extraoral radiographs. This includes panoramic and cephalometric radiography. The other answers are used in intraoral radiography.
Which piece of information is most important when labeling a film mount?
Important information such as patient name, dentist name, and name of the radiographer should always appear on the mount label to differentiate radiographs and ensured they are filed for the correct patient. Since the radiograph does not have any outward distinguishing marks, such as facial marking, all mounts must be labeled with the patient’s name. Some offices also include some kind of ID number, such as a medical records number or patient number.
When a patient’s bite block is placed too far back, how will the teeth appear?
A misplaced bite block will make the image look blurred. If the block is too far back, however, the teeth will look wider. They look narrow if the block is too far forward.
Which piece of information is most important when labeling a film mount?
Correct identification information is important when labeling a film mount. This normally includes the patient’s name, dentist name and even the name of the radiographer. Since the radiographs do not have any kind of distinguishing marks, such as facial markings or characteristics, it is important to always include the patient name on the label of the radiograph.
The varying shades of gray present in an X-ray image are known as:
Varying shades of gray in X-ray images is known as contrast. Contrast is dependent upon density and can be influenced by processing. Contrast refers to the differences in density.
According to the x-ray, what is the condition of the patient’s teeth?
here are two conditions present with the patient’s teeth. They are crooked and a misaligned bite.
If a patient is having a panoramic radiograph done
Since the panoramic radiograph rotates around the head, it is important that the front and back organs are properly covered. Lead aprons will prevent radiation from penetrating the patient.
Effective cross-contamination prevention is critical for direct digital radiography sensors which are:
Digital radiography sensors are not sterilizable. To minimize cross-contamination, the CDC recommends cleaning and disinfecting the sensor with an EPA-registered intermediate level disinfectant.
A dental assistant wears glasses. What is the procedure for eyewear?
Glasses can be worn under protective eyewear. Side covers can also be used with prescription glasses.
A dental team is looking for a new location for their clinic. The team should avoid selecting an office with:
To assist with maintaining the office environment, the team should avoid using carpeting or cloth upholstery in areas involving patient care or cleaning. These areas include the dental operatories, laboratories, and instrument processing. Carpet and upholstery are more difficult to disinfect and maintain.
Which of the following can increase the risk of transmitting pathogens?
A latex allergy will often cause dermatitis. This weakens the condition of the skin and increases pathogens. There are alternatives to latex that address this condition.
When following the instructions for putting on Personal Protective Equipment, which item is put on last?
The gloves in PPE should be put on last to ensure sterility. The DHCP wants to ensure the gloves to not touch other surfaces, such as clothes or instruments, that could contaminate the gloves before patient care begins.
Where are chemicals listed?
The Chemical Inventory Form is used to list the chemicals. It also includes basic information about each chemical.
What should the pressure of steam reach in an autoclave?
The autoclave needs to reach a 15 psi. This is the minimum pressure. It needs to be maintained for the duration of the process.
What is the most definitive way of assessing the sterilization process?
The biological monitor is typically a strip that cultivates biological spores. This is the most accurate measurement of how well a machine is sterilizing equipment. It is typically used with the process indicator and dosage indicator.
Areas that may be touched in the radiation room that need to be disinfected, are MOST likely touched by whom?
Any surface that is touched needs to be disinfected. The operator touches more surfaces than the patient. Any surface that the operator touches should be disinfected.
When preparing a high-speed hand piece for sterilization, you should
It is recommended that the hand piece be flushed for 20-30 seconds prior to disconnect to remove any contaminated water. Hand pieces should never be immersed in any type of liquid.
Where should the sharps container typically be?
According to law, sharps need to be disposed of as quickly as possible. This means that the container must be easily accessible. It is typically in the treatment room with the patient.
What is Not a mode of transmission for infectious disease?
A barrier is used to prevent the transmission of diseases. The other answers are modes of transportation.
Which of the following breaks the link between the mode of transmission and portal of entry?
Hand washing is the step is asepsis. This breaks the link between the mode of transmission and portal of entry. The other answers are focused on other links in the chain.
What does the number “3” in the red section of the chemical hazard label represent?
The National Fire Protection Association has created a color coded system that describes particular chemicals being used. The system explains the flammability, reactivity and health hazards associated with the chemical, as well as any special hazards. Red = Flammability. Yellow = Reactivity. Blue= Health. White = Special hazards (e.g. water reactive or oxidizing agent). The degree of each hazard is noted with a number 0-4. 0 = Minimal. 1 = Slight. 2 = Moderate. 3 = Serious. 4 = Extreme.
Leaks in nitrous oxide tanks commonly occur from all of the following except for:
The nitrous oxide equipment can pose a hazard in the dental office. Leaks commonly occur from hoses, fittings, and connectors. Leaks directly from the tank are not as likely.
A type I latex reaction may be triggered by __
Aero allergens are airborne substances that carry allergens. Frequently changing latex gloves will cause the latex to enter the air. This results in aero allergens.
A maximum number of ____ rems per quarter is established by OSHA as the allowable amount of an employees exposure of hands/forearms and feet/ankles to ionizing radiation?
OSHA has established figures regarding the maximum amount of exposure employees may have per quarter to ionizing radiation. These are as follows: 1.4 rems: head and trunk, blood forming organs, gonads or eye lenses. 18.75: hands/forearms and feet/ankles. 7.5: skin of the entire body.
What manufacturer details must be provided to employees regarding hazardous chemicals?
Employees need to know how to handle dangerous chemicals. This information is recorded in Material Safety Data Sheets. These need to be accessible in hard copy or on the computer.
A dental employee in a large dental practice accidently sticks herself with a contaminated needle (percutaneous needle injury). The employer is required to:
OSHA Blood borne pathogen requirements apply to all facilities. However, medical or dental offices with fewer than 10 employees are exempt from keeping a sharps injury log
When must hands be cleaned in the dental setting? Before:
The hands must be cleaned before each and every episode of dental treatment. Dental health workers do not need to clean their hands before: going to the restroom, taking patient notes (charting), or removing their gloves.
How far should a face shield extend?
Face shields are an option for eye protection. To prevent contamination, they need to be below the chin. There are permanent and disposable face shields.
It is suspected that a dental assistant has been exposed to Hepatitis B. According to OSHA, what is the maximum amount of time she has to undergo a blood draw to confirm or refute this?
Postexposure follow-up procedures should be followed closely to help identify and monitor an individual’s exposure to Hepatitis B. A blood draw immediately after the suspected exposure or within two hours is the standard.
The dental assistant is being careful to follow the steps outlined in the sterility assurance process. Which of the following would be her final step?
Sterility assurance is a critical program implemented to help make sure the proper procedures are being chosen, implemented and performance monitored. The four-step process is as follows: Step 1: Choose the procedure and identify the proper way to carry it out. Step 2: Create a step-by-step guide outlining the correct procedure. Step 3: Integrate procedure into office training program. Step 4: Monitor performance of the procedure.
A hypersensitive person secretes a massive amount of histamine. What is the reaction?
Anaphylaxis can be fatal. It occurs when a massive amount of histamine is produced. Hypersensitive people are at risk of anaphylaxis. This should be determined during a medical history.
Dosage indicators must be used in conjunction with which of the following?
Dosage indicators work by changing color when exposed to dry heat, chemical vapor and steam. They indicate whether or not the sterilization conditions were conducive for the actual sterilization to take place.
The majority of organisms found in dental water lines are common heterotrophic water bacteria. These organisms can pose a problem for which patients if exposed to these organisms from poorly maintained lines?
Heterotrophic water bacteria pose more a risk for immunocomprised patients or patients taking immunosuppressant drugs. Patients with a healthier immune system, patients under 50, and patients who are not taking immunosuppressant drugs are more able to resist infection from these organisms.
What does the number “0” in the yellow section of the chemical hazard label represent?
The National Fire Protection Association has created a color coded system that describes particular chemicals being used. The system explains the flammability, reactivity and health hazards associated with the chemical, as well as any special hazards. Red = Flammability. Yellow = Reactivity. Blue= Health. White = Special hazards (e.g. water reactive or oxidizing agent). The degree of each hazard is noted with a number 0-4. 0 = Minimal. 1 = Slight. 2 = Moderate. 3 = Serious. 4 = Extreme.
What is necessary after rinsing an eye exposed to acid etched material before reaching medical help?
Eyes must be rinsed out carefully after exposure to acid etched material. If medical attention is necessary, it is important to cover the eye with a patch.
What is a potential patient risk with dental saliva ejectors?
The dental saliva ejector poses a small risk for a reversal of pressure. If this situation occurs, aspirated fluids could backflow into a patient’s mouth. Fortunately, there have not been any reported cases. However, the Center for Disease Control advises that dental health professionals should be aware of this potential risk.
Besides blood, what is a common transmission of hepatitis?
Eyes need to be protected from contaminants. Aerosol can carry pink eye and hepatitis. Eyewear provides protection.
The skin of a patient contains microorganisms. Which of the following would be used to kill them?
There are four basic types of antimicrobial chemicals. These include: Disinfectants- Responsible for killing microorganisms on environmental or inanimate surfaces or objects. Antibiotics- Responsible for killing microorganisms inside or on the body. Antiseptics- Responsible for killing microorganisms on the skin or other surfaces of the body. Sterilants- Responsible for killing all microorganisms on inanimate objects.
Which of the following packaging materials is NOT used with steam autoclave?
In addition to Choices A, C and D, steam autoclaves operate with wrapped perforated cassettes. Aluminum foil is commonly used with dry heat sterilizers.
Employers must notify the Occupational Safety and Hazard Administration how soon after an incident involving three or more workers:
In any incident involving three or more workers, employers must contact OSHA within 8 hours. They must also contact OSHA within 8 hours in the event of a workplace death
The dental assistant is using the glass bead sterilizer in order to sterilize dental instruments. What temperature should the sterilizer be in order to perform its duty?
There are various types of sterilizers used to clean medical equipment. These different sterilizers require various temperatures and time in order to be effective. For example, chemical vapor sterilization and steam autoclave sterilization require a temperature of 270°F. However, chemical vapor sterilization takes 20 minutes and steam autoclave sterilization, 3 minutes.
The dental assistant is removing microbes from the instruments but not killing them. What is this known as?
Disinfecting is defined as there being so few microbes on something that it is safe to handle the object. Killing and removing microorganisms is known as sterilizing.
How does the dental dam protect the patient
All of the answers are functions of dental dams. They protect patients from aspiration. This includes splatter and instruments.
What is one of the most common chemical hazard warning labels in the workplace.
Chemicals are hazardous. Most are capable of catching on fire.
Which of the following indicates that the sterilized packet was exposed to the necessary heat?
The process indicator is tape or ink that is used for sterilization monitoring. The tape or ink changes color when it is exposed to heat.
What is NOT used for irrigation?
Ionized water is not used in irrigation. The other answers are suitable for irrigation
Cross-contamination refers to:
Cross-contamination is the process whereby germs within or from the dental setting are transferred to other areas of or outside of the dental office. This can occur in several ways such as patient to patient, healthcare worker to patient, patient to healthcare worker, and healthcare worker to the community.
Stage three of infectious disease is what
| There are four stages of infectious disease. Stage 1 – Incubation Stage 2 – Prodromal Stage 3 – Acute Stage 4 – Convalescent |
A problem with hand soaps and detergents is they can sometimes:
Soaps and hand detergents can sometimes be harsh for workers who have to wash their hands frequently. Irritants in soaps can cause dermatitis in some users.
What is the first step to turning off oxygen in an emergency situation?
There are specific steps to turning on and turning off oxygen. Before the oxygen is adjusted or turned off, it is necessary to remove the delivery system from the patient.
Bloodborne Pathogens training records must be kept for:
Records for BBP Standard training must be kept for three years. The records include training dates, contents of the training program, trainer’s name and qualifications, and the names and job titles of all persons attending the sessions.
Sterile instruments are stored in an area that is away from heat and _____.
Sterilized equipment should not be stored in heat. It is also important to keep the equipment dry. This will prevent contamination.
Which standard is used to protect employees from infection?
OSHA regulates work conditions. The Blood borne Pathogens Standard is applied in any environment where people are at risk of contamination by bodily fluids. This protects patients from infection.
How many times should a surface be sprayed and wiped to be disinfected?
The surfaces are disinfected with a spray wipe/ spray wipe technique. The first spray and wipe is used to clean the area. The second is used to disinfect.
Do gloves provide complete protection from hand exposure to infectious disease?
Gloves do not give complete protection against transmission of disease because there are opportunities for transmission when gloves are being removed. However, using gloves helps reduce the likelihood of coming in contact with these microorganisms.
Hand hygiene, cleaning/disinfecting office surface and the use of personal protective equipment are all example of what?
Universal precautions are the practices of treating every patient as if they could be infected or spread infection. These precautions include good hand hygiene, proper cleaning and sterilization of clinic surfaces and equipment/instruments, and wearing proper PPE. Since patients may not show symptoms at the time of treatment, taking precautions for each patient reduces the risk of future contamination to the employee or other patients that come through the office.
What is NOT a type of infectious waste?
Barriers are contaminated waste. The other answers are examples of infectious waste. They need to be labeled as biohazards
According to OSHA, what warning will replace a biohazard label?
Blood and other biohazards require a label. The label is a red or orange biohazard label. A red bag or container does not require a label.
The material safety data sheet for Clearfil Se Bond; Primer lists H317 as a hazard. What is H317?
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