MLT COMPREHENSIVE EXAM KIT31

Which of the following media is not used for the cultivation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Colonies of M. tuberculosis appear on egg media generally after 2 to 3 weeks incubation at:

The biochemical test most useful in an early identification of M. tuberculosis is the:

Which of the following develop yellow to orange pigmentation while incubating in the dark?

Concentration of sputum for T.B. culture is performed in this sequence:

The proper order of application of materials, exclusive of water, in the acid-fast staining technique is:

A peripheral blood smear from a patient suspected of having malaria will exhibit all but the following characteristics of infected cells:

Ova of one of the follwing parasites are commonly excreted in the urine of man. Which one?

The major difficulty in preparing an effective vaccine against the common cold is that:

 Ova of one of the following parasites are usually found in sputum. Which one?

The ova of one of the following is characterized by the presence of a prominent lateral spine:

The zinc sulfate concentration method:

Which of the following is not a preservative of fecal specimens?

The genus Epidermophyton may infect:

For more accurate stool examinations:

Entamoeba histolytica is classified as a/an:

A common name for Dyphyllobothrium latum is the:

Pinworm is the common name for:

Candida albicans differs from other Candida species in that it:

Thrush is caused by:

A yeast has been isolated from a mouth culture. It forms germ tubes in the serum tube test. What is the genus and species of the yeast?

Sabouraud’s agar is used to:

Which of the following would be the best preparation for rapid detection of Cryptococcus neoformans in a spinal fluid?

“Sulfur granules” are associated with:

Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by a:

One the distinguishing features of viruses is that they are:

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites that contain:

Viral specimens may be preserved for long periods of time by:

Unlike the other parasite worms, the tapeworms:

The genus of parasites which causes malaria is:

NIH swabs and scotch tape mounts are used to detect the ova of:

Tapeworms attach to the wall of the intestine by means of a:

Microscopic examination of parasites using the wet film method may use:

The diagnosis of all tapeworms is made:

In Taenia saginata, the larval stage developes in:

Feces are examined for tapeworm “head” by:

A genus of parasites that moves about by means of pseudopods is:

Ascaris is a:

Only one amoeba is considered to be definitely pathogenic to man. It is:

Which of the following flagellates found in the urine has no cyst form:

Cestodes or tapeworms consist of a series of segments know as:

Which parasite is sometimes found in the microscopic examination of urine?

A stool specimen should be examined immediately for:

Examination of feces for trophozoites is done by:

What is a good method for finding worms or eggs?

Mature cyst of Entamoeba coli usually possess a characteristic number of nuclei, which is:

Which of the following parasites is associated with hydatid cysts in the human?

The Plamodia that causes the most severe pathology is:

In a wet preparation of feces, iodine is used to:

Protozoa are classified by their means of:

What mean of locomotion do malarial parasites have?

The Nematodes are usually found in the feces in the form of:

The causative organism of histoplasmosis is:

The Widal Serologic test for febrile agglutinins is for:

Hookworm infections may be caused by:

The iodine stain is used to:

Nickerson’s and Cornmeal agar are good media for the growth of:

Most fungi that cause systemic infections enter the body:

Actinomyces bovis is characterized by the following features except:

An organism from a burn patient produced a diffusible green pigment on Mueller-Hinton sensitivity test agar; it was oxidase positive and resistant to many antibiotics. Its identity is most likely:

Staphylococci are considered pathogenic when they:

After 48 hours incubation on poured blood-plates, pneumococci produce compact colonies surrounded by a zone of greenish discoloration which is identical in appearance with that formed by colonies of:

Streptococcus pneumoniae can be identified by its reaction with:

Proteus vulgaris is yellow on XLD because it:

An abscess specimen shows many colonies of gram positive cocci which were in pairs and clusters on the original gram smear. The colonies appear smooth and white on sheep blood agar, but it is not clear whether these organisms are staphylococci. Which of the following tests would enable you to make this differentiation?

A beta-hemolytic stretococcus has been isolated from a throat culture. Which of the following tests would be most valuable to the physician in evaluating the significance of this organism?

If slides made from the genitourinary tract upon staining reveal gram negative cocci occurring in pairs with the adjacent sides markedly flattened within polymorphonuclear leukocyutes, the organisms are probably:

A test used to differentiate Group B-strep from other beta hemolytic strep is:

Haemophilus demonstrates satellitism with:

Microogranisms that are difficult to grow and may require special media are termed:

Staphylococcus aureus is a:

For the best detection of beta hemolysis by Haemophilus sp.

This organism exhibits a “cotton-ball” appearance upon blood culturing:

The optochin, (Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride, “P” disc sensitivity test consists of placing optochin disks on blood agar plates heavily inoculated with the suspected organism. If there is a zone of inhibition of 15 to 30 mm surrounding the colony following overnight incubation at 37 degrees C, the colony most likely consists of:

Motile bacteria always possess:

An aid in the detection of Neisseria gonorrheae would be the:

Toxic Shock Syndrome is often attributed to infection with:

Normal throat cultures shows a predominance of:

An organism was isolated from a vaginal culture that was oxidase positive and appeared microscopically as gram negative diplococci; it did not, however, ferment glucose in CTA medium. Its most likely identify is:

If we wanted to observe organisms in the living state, we would use what technique:

Chain like formation is demonstrated by this genus:

Morphologically the Streptococcus pneumoniae exhibits:

Darkfield microscopy is commonly used to visualize:

The stain often used for efficient observation of C. diphtheriae is:

Slender, pleomorphic organisms arranged parallel to each other or at sharp angles to form a V or Y on a gram stain smear are characteristic of:

Which of the following types of organisms have a fatty or lipid cell membrane?

Which of the following will not grow on most artificial laboratory media:

Hemophilus influenzae:

Which one of the following specimen requests is acceptable?

The temperature of a CO2 incubator is:

Correct identification of a causative agent requires isolation and growth of a:

Most of the automated microbiology equipment currently available has been designed to replace:

Failure to obtain anaerobiosis in anaerobe jars is most often due to the:

The triple sugar iron agar is valuable because it yields information about:

Simmons citrate agar is used to demonstrate whether or not a/an:

What is the positive reaction of urea?

Using the LIA tube, a positive decarboxylation of lysine is indicated by:

Using the TSI tube, gas production is indicated by:

Using Hektoen-Enteric agar, lactose fermenters are:

In culturing stool specimens for enteric pathogens, the following media are recommended: