RADIOGRAPHER ONLINE EXAM PRACTICE KIT 4
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- Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointsDiseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include:
1. tuberculosis
2. mumps
3. rubellaCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Indirect contact involves transmission of microorganisms via airborne contamination,fomites, and vectors. Airborne precaution requires the patient to wear a mask to avoid thespread of acid-fast bacilli (in bronchial secretions of TB patients) or other pathogens during
coughing. If the patient is unable or unwilling to wear a mask, the radiographer must wear one.
The radiographer should wear gloves, but a gown is required only if flagrant contamination islikely. Patients infected with airborne precaution require a private, specially ventilated (negativepressure) room. A private room is indicated for all patients on droplet precaution, that is,diseases transmitted via large droplets expelled from the patient while speaking, sneezing, orcoughing. The pathogenic droplets can infect others when they come in contact with mouth or nasal mucosa or conjunctiva. Rubella (“German measles”), mumps, and influenza are amongthe diseases spread by droplet contact; a private room is required for the patient, and healthcare practitioners must use gown and gloves - Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 pointsThe photoelectric process is an interaction between an x-ray photon and:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
In the photoelectric effect, a relatively low-energy incident photon uses all of its energyto eject an inner-shell electron, leaving a vacancy. An electron from the next shell will drop tofill the vacancy, and a characteristic ray is given up in the transition. This type of interaction is more harmful to the patient, as all the photon energy is transferred to tissue
- Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 pointsWhat transforms the violet light emitted by the PSP into the image seen on the CRT?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The exposed CR cassette is placed into the CR scanner reader, where the PSP plateis automatically removed. The latent image appears as the PSP is scanned by a narrow highintensity
helium–neon laser to obtain the pixel data. As the plate is scanned in the CR reader,it releases a violet light—a process referred to as photostimulated luminescence.
The luminescent light is converted to electrical energy representing the analog image.The electrical energy is sent to an analog-to-digital converter (ADC) where it is digitized becomes the digital image that is eventually displayed (after a short delay) on a high-resolutionmonitor and/or printed out by a laser printer. The digitized images can also be manipulated inpostprocessing, electronically transmitted, and stored/archived - Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 pointsWhen imaging the skull with the OML perpendicular to the image receptor and the CR
directed 25-degrees cephalad:
1. the occipital bone is well demonstrated
2. the dorsum sella is seen within the foramen magnum
3. the petrous pyramids fill the orbitsCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The posteroanterior (PA) axial projection (Haamethod/nuchofrontal projection) ofthe skull requires that the central ray be angled 25-degree cephalad to the perpendicular
orbitomeatal line (OML). This position is used to demonstrate the occipital bone in kyphotic
patients and other patients who are unable to assume the AP recumbent position. If positionedaccurately, the dorsum sella and posterior clinoid processes will be demonstrated within theforamen magnum. If the central ray is angled excessively, the posterior aspect of the arch of
C1 will appear in the foramen magnum - Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 pointsA profile view of the glenoid fossa can be obtained with the CR directed perpendicular to the glenoid fossa and the patient rotated:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
A profile view of the glenoid fossa can be obtained in the anteroposterior (AP) obliqueprojection (left posterior oblique [LPO] or right posterior oblique [RPO], Grashey method).
In the anatomic position, the bony glenoid fossa is seen to project posteriorly and laterally
approximately 40 degrees. Therefore, if the shoulder is positioned with the body rotated 35-to 45-degree toward the affected side, the glenoid fossa will be placed parallel with the CR(perpendicular to the image receptor) and a profile view of the fossa is obtained. - Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 pointsCharacteristics of nonstochastic effects of radiation include:
1. they have predictability
2. they have a threshold
3. severity is directly related to doseCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Nonstochastic effects are somatic effects that are predictable, threshold responses;that is, a certain quantity of radiation must be received before the effect occurs, and the greater
the dose the more severe the effect. Examples of nonstochastic effects are erythema, bloodchanges, cataract formation, and epilation. Stochastic effects of radiation are nonthreshold andrandomly occurring. Examples of stochastic effects include carcinogenesis and genetic effects.
The chance of occurrence of stochastic effects is directly related to the radiation dose; that is,
as radiation dose increases there is a greater likelihood of genetic alterations or development
of cancer - Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 pointsChemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called:
1. antiseptics
2. germicides
3. disinfectantsCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Some chemical agents used in health care facilities function to kill pathogenic microorganisms,
while others function to inhibit the growth/spread of pathogenic microorganisms.Germicides and disinfectants are used to kill pathogenic microorganisms, and antiseptics (likealcohol) are used to stop their growth/spread. Sterilization is another associated term and refersto killing of all microorganisms and their spores - Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 pointsHow is the thickness of the tomographic section related to the tomographic angle?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Tomography is a procedure that uses reciprocal motion between x-ray tube and imagereceptor-to-image structures at a particular level in the body, while blurring everything above
and below that level. The thickness of the level visualized can be varied by changing thetube angle (amplitude). In general, the greater the tube angle, the thinner the sectioimaged.Thinner sections may be used for imaging small or intricate structures - Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following locations can the pulse be detected only by the use of a stethoscope?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
As blood pulsates through the arteries, a throb can be detected. This throb or pulsecan be readily palpated where the arteries are superficial (examples are wrist, groin, neck, andposterior surface of the knee). The apical pulse can be detected with a stethoscope
- Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 pointsMobile fluoroscopic equipment has all of the following features, except:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The image intensifier in mobile fluoroscopic (“C” arm) equipment has the same functionas the image intensifier in fixed equipment; that is, it brightens the x-ray image so that it be viewed in a room having normal lighting. The TV camera/CCtransmits the fluoroscopicimage from the output phosphor of the image intensifier to the TV monitor for viewing. Mobilefluoroscopes/”C” arms have no spot-film device, although they frequently have features suchas “last image hold” and capacity for digital recording
- Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 pointsWhat portion of a CR cassette records the radiologic image?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Inside the CR cassette is the photostimulable phosphor (PSP) image plate, sometimesreferred to simply as an image plate or IP. This PSP or IP with its layer of europium-activatedbarium fluorohalide serves as the image receptor as it is exposed in the traditional mannerand receives the latent image. The PSP can store the latent image for several hours; afterapproximately 8 hours noticeable image fading will occur. Once the CR cassette is placedinto the CR processor (scanner or reader), the PSP plate is automatically removed. The latentimage on the PSP is changed to a manifest image as it is scanned by a narrow high-intensityhelium–neon laser to obtain the pixel data. As the plate is scanned in the “reader,” it releases aviolet light—a process referred to as photo- (or light) stimulated luminescence
- Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 pointsThe following bones participate in the formation of the knee joint:
1. femur
2. tibia
3. patellaCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The knee (tibiofemoral joint) is the largest joint of the body, formed by the articulationof the femur and tibia. However, it actually consists of three articulations: the patellofemoral
joint, the lateral tibiofemoral joint (lateral femoral condyle with tibial plateau), and the medial
tibiofemoral joint (medial femoral condyle with tibial plateau). Although the knee is classifiedas a synovial (diarthrotic) hinge-type joint, the patellofemoral joint is actually a gliding joint,and the medial and lateral tibiofemoral joints are hinge type - Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 pointsDuring GI radiography, the position of the stomach often varies depending on:
1. respiratory phase
2. body habitus
3. patient positionCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
When performing gastrointestinal (GI) radiography, the position of the stomach mayvary depending on the respiratory phase, the body habitus, and the patient position. Inspiration
causes the lungs to fill with air and the diaphragm to descend, thereby pushing the abdominalcontents downward. On expiration, the diaphragm will rise, allowing the abdominal organs toascend. Body habitus is an important factor in determining the size and shape of the stomach.An asthenic patient may have a long, J-shaped stomach, while the stomach may be transverse
on a hypersthenic patient. The body habitus is an important consideration in determining
the positioning and placement of the image receptor. The patient position can also alter theposition of the stomach. If a patient turns from the right anterior oblique (RAO) position into theanteroposterior (AP) position, the stomach will move into a more horizontal position. Although
the cardiac sphincter and the pyloric sphincter are relatively fixed, the fundus is quite mobileand will vary in position - Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 pointsTo better demonstrate ribs below the diaphragm:
1. suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation
2. suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation
3. perform the examination in the recumbent positionCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Ribs below the diaphragm are best demonstrated with the diaphragm elevated. Thisis accomplished by placing the patient in a recumbent position and by taking the exposure at
the end of exhalation. Conversely, the ribs above the diaphragm are best demonstrated the diaphragm depressed. Placing the patient in the erect position and taking the exposure atthe end of deep inspiration accomplishes this - Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 pointsAny wall that the useful x-ray beam can be directed toward is called a:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Protective barriers are classified as either primary or secondary. Primary barriers protectfrom the useful, or primary, x-ray beam and consist of a certain thickness of lead. They
are located anywhere the primary beam can possibly be directed, for example, the walls ofthe x-ray room. The walls of the x-ray room usually require 1/16-inch (1.5-mm) thickness oflead 7-feet high. Secondary barriers protect from secondary (scattered and leakage) radiation.
Secondary barriers are control booths, lead aprons and gloves, the wall of the x-ray room above
7 feet. Secondary barriers require much less lead than primary barriers - Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following positions should you place a patient who is experiencing syncope?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Syncope, or fainting, is a result of a drop in blood pressure caused by insufficientblood (oxygen) to the brain. The patient should be helped into a dorsal recumbent position
with feet elevated to facilitate blood flow to the brain - Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 pointsThe phenomenon in which the radiographic information recorded on the PSP/IP uponexposure to x-rays decreases with the elapsed time until it is read by the scanner/reader istermed:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The phenomenon in which the radiographic information recorded on the PSP/IPupon exposure to x-rays decreases with the elapsed time until it is read by the scanner/reader
is termed fading. This occurs because the photoelectrons generated by x-ray excitation uponexposure of the photostimulable phosphor are thermally released over time and therefore areunable to contribute to photostimulated luminescence upon scanning/reading. Luminescence
decreases by approximately 25% within 8 hours of exposure. The greater the elapsed time and
the greater the environmental temperature, the greater will be the degree of fading - Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 pointsClassify the following tissues in order of decreasing radiosensitivity:
1. liver cells
2. intestinal crypt cells
3. muscle cellsCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
According to Bergoni´e and Tribondeau, the most radiosensitive cells are undifferentiated,rapidly dividing cells such as lymphocytes, intestinal crypt (of Lieberk¨uhn) cells, andspermatogonia. Liver cells are among the types of cells that are somewhat differentiated andcapable of mitosis. These characteristics render them somewhat radiosensitive. Muscle cells,as well as nerve cells and red blood cells, are highly differentiated and do not divide. Therefore,in order of decreasing sensitivity (from least to greatest sensitivity), the cells are intestinal cryptcells, liver cells, and muscle cells.
- Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following can contribute to radiographic image distortion?
1. tube angle
2. the position of the organ or structure within the body
3. radiographic positioning of the partCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Distortion is caused by improper alignment of the tube, body part, and image receptor.Anatomic structures within the body are rarely parallel to the image receptor in a simplerecumbent position. In an attempt to overcome this distortion, we position the part to beparallel with the image receptor, or angle the central ray to “open up” the part. Examples ofthis technique are obliquing the pelvis to place the ilium parallel to the image receptor, orangling the central ray cephalad to “open up” the sigmoid colon
- Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 pointsGlenohumeral joint dislocation can be evaluated with which of the following?
1. inferosuperior axial
2. transthoracic lateral
3. scapular Y projectionCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Tissue is most sensitive to radiation exposure when in an oxygenated condition.Anoxic refers to a general lack of oxygen in tissue; hypoxic refers to tissue with little oxygen.
Anoxic and hypoxic tumors are typically avascular (with little or no blood supply) andtherefore more radioresistant - Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 pointsA patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstratewhich of the following structure(s)?
1. pylorus
2. sigmoid
3. duodenumCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Oral administration of barium sulfate is used to demonstrate the upper digestive system, esophagus, fundus, body and pylorus of the stomach, and barium progression through the small bowel. The large bowel, including sigmoid colon, is usually demonstrated via rectal administration of barium
- Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 pointsUnder which of the following conditions is biologic material most sensitive to radiationexposure?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Tissue is most sensitive to radiation exposure when in an oxygenated condition.Anoxic refers to a general lack of oxygen in tissue; hypoxic refers to tissue with little oxygen. Anoxic and hypoxic tumors are typically avascular (with little or no blood supply) andtherefore more radioresistant
- Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following conditions will demonstrate least x-ray penetrability?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The ability of x-ray photons to penetrate a body part has a great deal to do with thecomposition of that part (e.g., bone vs. soft tissue vs. air) and the presence of any pathologic
condition. Pathologic conditions can alter the normal nature of the anatomic part. Some conditions
such as osteomalacia, fibrosarcoma, and paralytic ileus (obstruction) result in a decreasein body tissue density. When body tissue density decreases, x-rays will penetrate the tissuesmore readily, that is, more x-ray penetrability. In conditions such as ascites, where body tissuedensity increases as a result of accumulation of fluid, x-rays will not readily penetrate the bodytissues, that is, less x-ray penetrability - Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 pointsThe image intensifier’s input phosphor is generally composed of:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The image intensifier’s input phosphor receives the remnant beam from the patientand converts it to a fluorescent light image. To maintain resolution, the input phosphor is madeof cesium iodide crystals. Cesium iodide is much more efficient in this conversion process than
was the phosphor previously used, zinc cadmium sulfide. Calciutungstate was the phosphorused in cassette-intensifying screens for many years prior to the development of rare earth
phosphors such as gadolinium oxysulfide - Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 pointsHysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of:
1. uterine tubal patency
2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity
3. uterine positionCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of uterine tubal patency,mass lesions in the uterine cavity, and uterine position. Although hysterosalpingography isoften performed to check tubal patency, the uterine anatomy, position, and morphology areexhibited. Additionally, polyps, fibroids, or space occupying lesions within the uterus are well demonstrated
- Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 pointsDouble-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed for better visualization
of:CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Double-contrast studies of the stomach or large intestine involve coating the organwith a thin layer of barium sulfate, and then introducing air. This permits seeing through the
organ to structures behind it, and most especially allows visualization of the mucosal lining ofthe organ. A barium-filled stomach or large bowel demonstrates position, size, and shape ofthe organ, and any lesion that projects out from its walls, such as diverticula. Polypoid lesions,
which project inward from the wall of an organ, may go unnoticed unless a double-contrastexamination is performed - Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 pointsIf the exposure rate at 3 feet from the fluoroscopic table is 40 mR/h, what will be theexposure rate for 30 minutes at a distance of 5 feet from the table?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The intensity or exposure rate of radiation at a given distance from a point source isinversely proportional to the square of the distance. This is the inverse square law of radiationand is expressed in the following equation:
I 1
I 2
= D2
2
D2
1
Substituting known values:
40 mR/h
x mR/h
= 25
9
25x = 360
x = 14.4 mR/h, therefore 7.2 mR in 30 minutes - Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 pointsThe medical suffix plasia refers to:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The medical suffix plasia refers to development, formation, growth, or proliferation.The suffix denoting embryonic is blast. Condition is indicated by the suffix osis. The suffixkinesia is used to refer to motion or movement
- Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 pointsThe AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull best demonstrates the:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The anteroposterior (AP) axial projection (Towne method) of the skull is used todemonstrate the occipital bone. The skull is positioned AP and the CR is directed caudally.
This serves to project the anterior structures inferiorly and away from superimposition on theoccipital bone. The frontal bone is best demonstrated in the PA projection; the facial bones inthe parietoacanthial (Waters) position. The sphenoid bone can be seen in the lateral and basalprojections - Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 pointsStructures found within the mediastinum include all of the following, except the:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The mediastinum is the space between the lungs that contains the heart, great vessels,trachea, esophagus, and thymus gland. It is bound anteriorly by the sternum and posteriorly bythe vertebral column and extends from the upper thorax to the diaphragm
- Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 pointsA student radiographer who is younger than 18 years must not receive an annual occupationaldose greater than:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Because the established dose-limit formula guideline is used for occupationally exposed
persons 18 years of age and older, guidelines had to be established in the event a studententered the clinical component of a radiography educational program prior to age 18 years.The guideline states that the occupational dose limit for students younger than 18 years is 0.1rem (100 mrem or 1 mSv) in any given year. It is important to note that this 0.1 rem is includedin the 0.5 rem dose limit that allowed the student as a member of the general public - Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 pointsProper body mechanics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is the portionof the body:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Proper body mechanics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is thepart of the body in touch with the floor or other horizontal plane. The center of gravity is the
midpoint of the pelvis or lower abdomen, depending on body build. The line of gravity isthe abstract line passing through the center of gravity, vertically. Proper body mechanics can help prevent painful back injuries by making proficient use of the muscles in the arms and legs - Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following projections or positions will subacromial or subcoracoid dislocationbe best demonstrated?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The “scapular Y” refers to the characteristic Y formed by the body of the scapula,acromion, and coracoid processes. The patient is positioned in a posteroanterior (PA) obliqueposition—a right anterior oblique (RAO) or left anterior oblique (LAO), depending on which is the affected side. The midcoronal plane is adjusted approximately 60 degrees to the image.
- Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 points- Accurate operation of the AEC device is dependent on:
1. thickness and density of the object
2. positioning of the object with respect to the ionization chamber
3. beam restriction
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The automatic exposure control (AEC) automatically terminates the exposure whenthe proper density has been recorded on the image receptor. The important advantage of the
phototimer, then, is that it can accurately duplicate radiographic densities. It is very useful in
providing accurate comparison in follow-up examinations, and in decreasing patient exposure
dose by decreasing the number of “retakes” because of improper exposure. The AEC automatically
adjusts the exposure required for body parts having different thicknesses and densities.
Remember that proper functioning of the AEC depends on accurate positioning by the radiographer.
The correct ionization chamber(s) must be selected, and the anatomic part of interestmust completely cover the ionization chamber to achieve the desired density. If collimationis inadequate, and a field size larger than the part is used, excessive scattered radiation fromthe body or tabletop can cause the AEC to terminate the exposure prematurely, resulting in anunderexposed radiograph
underexposed radiograph - Accurate operation of the AEC device is dependent on:
- Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 pointsMajor effect(s) of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) irradiation include:
1. malignant disease
2. chromosome aberration
3. cell deathCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Chromosome aberration, cell death, and malignant disease are major effects of deoxyribonucleicacid (DNA) irradiation, often as a result of abnormal metabolic activity. If thedamage happens to the DNA of a germ cell, the radiation response may not occur until oneor more generations later.
- Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 pointsThe voltage ripple associated with a 3-phase, 12-pulse rectified generator is approximately:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Voltage ripple refers to the percentage drop from maximum voltage each pulse ofcurrent experiences. In single-phase rectified equipment, the entire pulse (half-cycle) is used;therefore, there is first an increase to maximum (peak) voltage value and a subsequent decreaseto zero potential (90-degree past peak potential). The entire waveform is used; if 100 kV(kilovolts) were selected, the actual average kilovoltage output would be approximately 70.
Three-phase rectification produces almost constant potential with just small ripples (drops) inmaximum potential between pulses. Approximately a 13% voltage ripple (drop from maximumvalue) characterizes the operation of three-phase, six-pulse generators. Three-phase, 12-pulsegenerators have approximately a 4.0% voltage ripple - Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 pointsWhen a radiographer is obtaining patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Obtaining a complete and accurate history from the patient for the radiologist isan important aspect of a radiographer’s job. Both subjective and objective data should becollected. Objective data include signs and symptoms that can be observed, such as a cough,a lump, or elevated blood pressure. Subjective data relate to what the patient feels, and to what
extent. A patient may experience pain, but is it mild or severe? Is it localized or general? Does
the pain increase or decrease under different circumstances? A radiographer should explorethis with a patient and document additional information on the requisition for the radiologist - Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 pointsThe exposed PSP is subjected to a narrow laser beam:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Computed radiography (CR) uses special phosphor plates inside image plates (IPs)to record the radiologic image. No film is used, hence the term filmless radiography. The IPis exposed just like a conventional screen–film cassette. Upon exposure, a latent image isproduced on the photostimulable phosphor (PSP), which is located inside the IP. The IP isplaced in the CR reader, and the PSP is automatically removed.
- Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 pointsWhat is the best way to reduce magnification distortion?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
There are two types of distortion: size and shape. Shape distortion relates to thealignment of the x-ray tube, the part to be radiographed, and the image receptor. There aretwo kinds of shape distortion: elongation and foreshortening. Size distortion is magnificationand is related to the object-to-image-receptor distance (OID) and source-to-image-receptor
distance (SID). Magnification can be reduced by either increasing the SID or decreasing theOID. However, an increase in SID must be accompanied by an increase in mAs (milliampereseconds)
to maintain density. It is therefore preferable, in the interest of exposure time, toreduce OID whenever possible - Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following medical abbreviations mean three times a day?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Three times a day is indicated by the abbreviation TID. The abbreviation QID meansfour times a day. Every hour is represented by QH, and PC means after meals
- Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 pointsThe energy of x-ray photons has an inverse relationship with:
1. photon wavelength
2. applied mA
3. applied kVCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
As kV is increased, more high-energy photons are produced and the overall energyof the primary beam is increased. Photon energy is inversely related to wavelength; that is,as photon energy increases, wavelength decreases. An increase in milliamperage serves to
increase the number of photons produced at the target, but isunrelated to their energy - Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 pointsCervical spine positions performed to demonstrate the intervertebral foramina closest to the image receptor are:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The cervical intervertebral foramina lie 45 degrees to the midsagittal plane and 15to 20 degrees to a transverse plane. When the posterior oblique position (LPO, RPO) is used,the cervical intervertebral foramina demonstrated are those further from the image receptor.There is therefore some magnification of the foramina. In the anterior oblique position (LAO,
RAO), the foramina disclosed are those closer to the image receptor - Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 pointsA patient was positioned for a radiographic projection with the x-ray tube, grid, and image receptor properly aligned but the body part angled. Which of the following will result?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Proper alignment of the x-ray tube, body part, and image receptor is required to avoidimage distortion in the form of foreshortening or elongation. Foreshortening will usually resultwhen the part is out of alignment. Elongation is often a result of angulation of the x-ray tube.
Grid lines or grid cutoff will occur when the grid itself is off center or is not in alignment withthe x-ray tube - Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 pointsIt is recommended that PSPs be read soon after exposure, principally to avoid:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Image “fading” will occur if there is delay in reading the PSP. This is because aftera time, trapped photoelectrons are released from the “color center” and are therefore unableto participate in PSL. PSL intensity decreases in the interval between x-ray exposure and the
image reading process. If the exposed PSL is not delivered to the reader/processor for 8 hours,PSL decreases by approximately 25%. Fading also increases as environmental temperatureincreases.It is recommended that the PSP be scanned in the reader at right angles to grid line directionto avoid/reduce aliasing artifacts - Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 pointsWhat will result from using double-emulsion film in a cassette having a single intensifyingscreen?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Single-screen cassettes are made to be used with single emulsion film, such as inmammography. The single fluorescing screen is adjacent to, and exposes, the single emulsion.
If double emulsion (duplitized) film is placed in a single screen cassette, it will receive onlyone-half the intended exposure and the resulting image will exhibit decreased density - Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 pointsMost laser film must be handled:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Most laser film is sensitive to both the Wratten 6B and the GBX safelight filters. Laserfilm will fog if handled under these safelight conditions. Most laser film is loaded into a film
magazine in total darkness. Processing temperatures are the same for laser film as for regular
x-ray film - Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following will have an effect on radiographic contrast?
1. beam restriction
2. grids
3. focal spot sizeCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Radiographic contrast is described as the difference between densities, or scale ofgrays, in the radiographic image. Because the function of grids is to collect scattered radiation,
they serve to shorten the scale of contrast. Beam restrictors function to limit the x-ray fieldsize, thereby reducing the production of scattered radiation, and shorten the scale of contrast.
Focal spot size is one of the geometric factors affecting recorded detail and has no effect on thescale of contrast. It is the function of radiographic contrast to make details visible. The sum ofsubject contrast and film contrast equals radiographic contrast - Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure?
1. pulse oximeter
2. stethoscope
3. sphygmomanometerCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
A pulse oximeter is used to measure a patient’s pulse rate and oxygen saturation level.
A stethoscope and a sphygmomanometer are used together to measure blood pressure. The
first sound heard is the systolic pressure and the normal range is 110 to 140 mmHg. When no
more sound is heard, the diastolic pressure is recorded. The normal diastolic range is 60 to 90 mmHg. Elevated blood pressure is called hypertension. Hypotension, low blood pressure, isnot of concern unless it is caused by injury or disease; in that case, it results in shock - Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements regarding human gonadal cells is/are accurate?
1. the female oogonia reproduce only during fetal life
2. the male spermatogonia reproduce continuously
3. both male and female stem cells reproduce only during fetal lifeCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The development of male and female reproductive stem cells has important radiationprotection implications. Male reproductive stem cells reproduce continuously. However, thefemale reproductive stem cells develop only during fetal life; women are born with all thereproductive cells they will ever have. It is exceedingly important to shield children wheneverpossible, as they have their reproductive futures ahead of them
- Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 pointsUnderexposure of a radiograph can be caused by all of the following, except:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Insufficient milliamperage and/or exposure time will result in lack of radiographicdensity. Insufficient kV (kilovolts) results inunderpenetration and excessive contrast. Insufficientsource-to-image-receptor distance (SID), however, will result in increased exposure rate and radiographic overexposure
- Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 pointsExposure rate increases with an increase in:
1. mA
2. kV
3. SIDCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The quantity of x-ray photons produced at the target is the function of mAs. The quality(wavelength, penetration, energy) of x-ray photons produced at the target is the function of kV.The kV also has an effect on exposure rate, because an increase in kV will increase the numberof high-energy x-ray photons produced at the target. Exposure rate decreases with an increasein source-to-image-receptor distance (SID)
- Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 pointsCharacteristics of anemia include:
1. decreased number of circulating red blood cells
2. decreased hemoglobin
3. hematuriaCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Anemia is a blood condition characterized by a decreased number of circulating redblood cells and decreased hemoglobin, and has many causes. Adequate hemoglobin is requiredto provide oxygen to the body. Anemia is treated according to its cause. Hematuria is the termused to describe blood in the urine and is unrelated to anemia
- Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 pointsDeveloper solution is prevented from entering the fixer tank in automatic processing by the:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
In manual processing there is a stop bath between the developer and fixer solutionsthat serves to remove developer solution from the film surface and stop the development
process. Automatic processing has no stop bath; film travels directly from the developer intothe fixer solution. However, the processor’s transport rollers serve to squeeze the solution fromthe film surface, and the acid fixer stops the (alkaline) development process. Guide shoes arefound in turnaround assemblies and help direct the film as it bends from one direction toanother - Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 pointsWhich of these radiation exposure situations is likely to be the most harmful?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The greatest effect of, and response to, irradiation is brought about by a large doseof radiation, to the whole body, delivered all at one time. Whole-body radiation can depress
many body functions. With a fractionated dose, the effects would be less severe because thebody would have an opportunity to repair between doses - Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
In the anteroposterior (AP) projection, the proximal fibula is at least partially superimposedon the lateral tibial condyle. Medial rotation of 45 degrees will “open” the proximaltibiofibular articulation. Lateral rotation will obscure the articulation even more
- Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 pointsChemical substances that inhibit growth of pathogenic microorganisms without necessarily killing them are called:
1. antiseptics
2. germicides
3. disinfectantsCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Some chemical agents used in health care facilities function to kill pathogenic microorganisms,while others function to inhibit the growth/spread of pathogenic microorganisms.Germicides and disinfectants are used to kill pathogenic microorganisms and antiseptics (likealcohol) are used to stop their growth/spread. Sterilization is another associated term and refersto killing of all microorganisms and their spores
- Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction orcardiac arrest?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Epinephrine (Adrenalin) is the vasopressor used to treat ananaphylactic reaction orcardiac arrest. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator. Hydrocortisone is a steroid that may be used totreat bronchial asthma, allergic reactions, and inflammatory reactions. Digitoxin is used to treat
cardiac fibrillation - Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 pointsThe absorption of excessive primary radiation by a grid is called:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Grids are used in radiography to absorb scattered radiation before it reaches theimage receptor, thus improving radiographic contrast. Contrast obtained with a grid comparedto contrast without a grid is termed contrast improvement factor. The greater the percentageof scattered radiation absorbed compared to absorbed nonscattered radiation, the greater the“selectivity” of the grid. If a grid absorbs an abnormally large amount of primary radiationbecause of improper centering, tube angle, or tube distance, grid cutoff occurs
- Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 pointsHormonal factors that increase the risk of a woman developing breast cancer include:
1. family history
2. early menses
3. nulliparityCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Changes in hormone levels affect changes in the glandular tissue of the breast. Forexample, breast tissue changes are seen during breast development, during pregnancy and
lactation, and during menopause. Women at higher risk of developing breast cancer includethose having had early menses (before age 12 years), late menopause (after age 52 years), andnulliparity (no full- or late-term pregnancies). Risks other than hormonal include family history
and age - Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 pointsIn which aspect of the orbital wall a “blowout fracture” usually occurs?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The bony walls of the orbit are thin, fragile, and subject to fracture. A direct blow tothe eye results in a pressure that can cause fracture. That fracture is usually to the orbital floor(inferior aspect of the bony orbit). Because the fracture results from increased pressure withinthe eye, it is referred to as a “blowout” fracture.
- Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 pointsThe histogram demonstration of pixel value distribution can be changed/affected by thefollowing:
1. selection of processing algorithm
2. processing delay
3. centeringCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Histogram appearance can be affected by a number of things. Positioning and centeringaccuracy can have a significant effect on histogram appearance Otherfactors affecting histogram appearance include selection of the correct processing algorithm(e.g., chest vs. femur), changes in scatter, SID, OID, and collimation. In short, anything that affectsscatter and/or dose. Another factor affecting histogram appearance is delay in processingfrom time of exposure. Processing delay can result in fading of the image
- Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 pointsWhat activator is required for barium fluorohalide to retain its luminous properties?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
When the barium fluorohalide absorbs x-ray energy, electrons are released and theydivide into two groups. One electron group initiates immediate luminescence during the excitedstate of Eu2+. The other electron group becomes trapped within the phosphor’s halogenions, forming a “color center.” These are the phosphors that ultimately form the radiographicimage because when exposed to a monochromatic laser light source these phosphors emitpolychromatic light, termed photostimulated luminescence (PSL).
The PSP layer (or Storage Phosphor Screen/SPS) can store its latent image for severalhours, however, after approximately 8 hours noticeable image fading will occur. The Europiumactivator is important for the storage characteristic of the PSPs; it also has function similar tothe sensitization specks within film emulsion—without europium, the image will not becomemanifest - Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 pointsBy which of the following dose–response curves are late or long-term effects of radiationexposure generally represented?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Late, long-term, effects of radiation can occur in tissues that have survived a previousirradiation months or years earlier. These late effects, such as carcinogenesis and genetic effects are “all-or-nothing” effects—either the organism develops cancer or it does not. Most late effects
do not have a threshold dose; that is, any dose, however small, theoretically can induce aneffect. Increasing that dose will increase the likelihood of the occurrence, but will not affect its
severity; these effects are termed stochastic. Nonstochastic effects are those that will not occurbelow a particular threshold dose, and that increase in severity as the dose increases - Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 pointsThe most important scattering object in both radiography and fluoroscopy is the:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The patient, as the first scatterer, is the most important scatterer. At 1 m from thepatient, the intensity of the scattered beam is 0.1% of the intensity of the primary beam.Compton scatter emerging from the patient is almost as energetic as the primary beam enteringthe patient
- Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 pointsTypical examples of digital imaging include:
1. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
2. computed tomography (CT)
3. pluridirectional tomographyCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are two commonexamples of digital imaging. Special equipment is also available for digital radiography
(DR), or computed radiography (CR): images produced by either a fan-shaped x-ray beam receivedby linearly arrayed radiation detectors or a traditional fan shaped x-ray beam receivedby a light stimulated phosphor plate. Digital images can also be obtained in digital subtraction
angiography (DSA), nuclear medicine, and diagnostic sonography. Analog images areconventional images that can be converted to digital images with a device called a digitizer.
Pluridirectional tomography refers to conventional tomographic equipment that is capable ofseveral x-ray tube movements - Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 pointsSpecial beam-shaping optics are used in the CR reader to keep the infrared laser scanning
light finely focused in order to:
1. collect analog data
2. improve SNR
3. maintain good spatial resolutionCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
After exposure, the IP is placed into the CR reader where the PSP screen is automaticallyremoved, moved at a constant speed, and scanned by a narrow high-intensityhelium–neon (infrared) laser or a solid state laser to obtain the pixel data. The appropriatewavelength is absorbed by the “color center” and the electrons trapped there, causing PSL tooccur during the excited state of Eu2+.
The phosphors are activated by a monochromatic laser light, however, PSL is a differentcolor (bluish-purple, blue-green, etc.). These two lights (PSL and laser) must not interfere witheach other. To improve the image SNR, the PSL (carrying the x-ray image) must be a different
wavelength/color than, and physically separate from, the laser excitation light. An opticalfilter/beam-shaping optics is used that permits transmission of the PSL, but attenuates the laserlight; this filter/beam-shaper is mounted in front of a PMT.
The PMT or photodiode detects the PSL and converts it to electrical signals that are sentto an ADC where it becomes the digital image displayed on a high-resolution monitor. The
digitized images can also be manipulated in postprocessing, electronically transmitted, and
stored/archived - Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is a fast acting vasodilator used to lower blood pressure and relieve the pain of angina pectoris?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Angina pectoris is a spasmodic chest pain frequently caused by oxygen deficiencyin the myocardium. The pain often radiates down the left arm and up to the left jaw. Anginapectoris attacks are frequently associated with exertion or emotional stress in individuals withcoronary artery disease. Pain may be relieved with a vasodilator such as nitroglycerin givensublingually or transdermally. Digitalis is used to treat congestive heart failure. Dilantin is usedin the control of seizure disorders, and Tagamet is used to treat duodenal ulcers
- Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 pointsIn the parieto-orbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal, the median sagittalplane and central ray form what angle?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
In the parieto-orbital projection (Rhese method), the patient is prone with the acanthiomeatal line perpendicular to the image receptor. The head rests on the forehead, and chin, and the MSP should form 53 degrees with the image receptor (37 degrees with thecentral ray). Radiographically, the optic canal should appear in the lower outer quadrant ofthe orbit. Incorrect rotation of the MSP results in lateral or medial displacement, and incorrect
positioning of the baseline results in longitudinal displacement of the optic canal - Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 pointsA radiographic image exhibiting few shades of gray between black and white is said topossess
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Radiographic contrast is described as the difference between densities in the radiographicimage. It is the function of radiographic contrast to make details visible. Radiographs
exhibiting many shades of gray are said to possess long-scale, or low, radiographic contrast; thatis, there are many grays, and there is only little difference between the various shades of gray.Conversely, radiographs exhibiting few shades of gray are said to possess short-scale, or high,
radiographic contrast. These images have a very noticeable difference between radiographicdensities - Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 pointsA small bottle containing a single dose of medication is termed:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Injectable medications are available in two different kinds of containers. An ampuleusually holds a single dose of medication. A vial is a small bottle that holds several doses of themedication. The term bolus is used to describe an amount of fluid to be injected. A carafe is anarrow-mouthed container not likely to be used for medical purposes.
- Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 pointsAn increase in kV will have which of the following effects?
1. more scatter radiation will be produced
2. the exposure rate will increase
3. radiographic contrast will increaseCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
An increase in kilovoltage (photon energy) will result in a greater number (i.e., exposurerate) of scattered photons (Compton interaction). These scattered photons carry no usefulinformation and contribute to radiation
- Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is the most proximal structure on the adult ulna?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The distal humerus articulates with the proximal radius and ulna to form the elbowjoint. At its proximal end, the ulna presents the olecranon process, found at the proximal and
posterior end of the semilunar (trochlear) notch. The coronoid process is seen at the distal and
anterior end of the semilunar notch. Specifically, the semilunar notch of the ulna articulateswith the trochlea of the distal medial humerus. The capitulum is lateral to the trochlea andarticulates with the radial head - Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 pointsWhat is the intensity of scattered radiation perpendicular to and 1 meter from the patient,compared to the useful beam at the patient’s surface?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The patient is the most important radiation scatterer during both radiography and
fluoroscopy. In general, at 1 m from the patient, the intensity is reduced by a factor of 1000, to approximately 0.1% of the original intensity. Successive scatterings can render the intensity to unimportant levels - Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree LPO position with the central rayentering 1-inch medial to the elevated anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS)?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The sacroiliac joints angle posteriorly and medially 25 degrees to the median sagittalplane (MSP). Therefore, to demonstrate the sacroiliac joints with the patient in the anteroposterior(AP) position, the affected side must be elevated 25 degrees. This places the joint space perpendicular to the image receptor and parallel to the central ray. Therefore, the left posterioroblique (LPO) position will demonstrate the right sacroiliac joint and the right posterior oblique(RPO) position will demonstrate the left. When performed with the patient posteroanterior (PA),the unaffected side will be elevated 25 degrees
- Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 pointsA 3-inch object to be radiographed at 36inches SID lies 4 inches from the image receptor. What will be the image width?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Magnification is part of every radiographic image. Anatomic parts within the bodyare at various distances from the image receptor and therefore have various degrees of magnification.
The formula used to determine amount of image magnification is:Image size/Object size = SID/SOD
x/3= 36″SID/32″SOD(SOD= SID-OID)
32x= 108
x = 3.37″ image width
- Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 pointsA 3-inch object to be radiographed at 36inches SID lies 4 inches from the image receptor. What will be the image width?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Magnification is part of every radiographic image. Anatomic parts within the bodyare at various distances from the image receptor and therefore have various degrees of magnification.
The formula used to determine amount of image magnification is:Image size/Object size = SID/SOD
x/3= 36″SID/32″SOD(SOD= SID-OID)
32x= 108
x = 3.37″ image width
- Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 pointsThe sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Sternoclavicular joints should be performed posteroanterior (PA) whenever possibleto keep OID to a minimum. The oblique position (approximately 15 degrees) opens the jointclosest to the image receptor. The erect position may be used, but is not required. Weightbearingimages are not recommended
- Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following criteria are required for accurate visualization of the greater tuberclein profile?
1. epicondyles parallel to the image receptor
2. arm in external rotation
3. humerus in AP positionCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the proximal humerus separatedby the intertubercular (bicipital) groove. The anteroposterior (AP) projection of the
humerus/shoulder places the epicondyles parallel to the image receptor and the shoulderin external rotation and demonstrates the greater tubercle in profile. The lateral projection ofthe humerus places the shoulder in extreme internal rotation with the epicondyles perpendicular
to the image receptor and demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile - Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 pointsAll of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single-contrast and double contrast examinations of the large bowel, except:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Radiographic examinations of the large bowel generally include the anteroposterior(AP) or posteroanterior (PA) axial position to “open” the S-shaped sigmoid colon, the lateralposition especially for the rectum, and the left anterior oblique (LAO) and right anterior oblique(RAO) (or left posterior oblique [LPO] and right posterior oblique [RPO]) to “open” the colicflexures. Left and right decubitus positions are usually employed only in double-contrast bariumenemas to better demonstrate double contrast of the medial and lateral walls of the ascendingand descending colon
- Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following conditions is protective or “reverse” isolation required?
1. tuberculosis
2. burns
3. leukemiaCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Protective or “reverse” isolation is used to keep the susceptible patient from becominginfected. Patients who have suffered burns have lost a very important means of protection,their skin, and therefore have increased susceptibility to bacterial invasion. Patients whose immunesystems are depressed lose the ability to combat infection, and hence are more susceptibleto infection. Active tuberculosis requires airborne precautions
- Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following devices functions to produce hard copies of digital images?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Conventional screen–film images can be scanned and digitized by a special machinecalled a film digitizer. Interpretation of digital images is made from the CRT display monitor;this is referred to as “soft copy display.” “Hard copies” can be made with a laser printer.A laser camera records the displayed image by exposing a film with laser light; it can alsorecord several images on one film. The laser printer is connected for processing of the images
- Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 pointsWith all other factors remaining the same, as grid ratio is increased:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Because lead content increases as grid ratio increases, more scattered radiation (andnonscattered remnant radiation) is absorbed before reaching the image receptor. There are,therefore, fewer x-ray photons interacting with the image receptor, with a resulting decreasein optical/radiographic density as grid ratio increases. Scale of contrast would decrease withan increase in grid ratio
- Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 pointsThe best way to control voluntary motion is:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Patients who are able to cooperate are usually able to control voluntary motion ifthey are provided with an adequate explanation of the procedure. Once patients understand
what is needed, most will cooperate to the best of their ability (by suspending respiration andholding still for the exposure). Certain body functions and responses, such as heart action,
peristalsis, pain, and muscle spasm, cause involuntary motion uncontrollable by the patient.The best way to control involuntary and voluntary motion is by always selecting the shortestpossible exposure time. Voluntary motion may also be minimized by careful explanation,immobilization, and (as a last resort and only in certain cases) restraint - Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 pointsThe manubrial notch, a bony landmark used in radiography of the sternoclavicular joints,is located at the same level as the:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The manubrial or jugular notch is the depression on the superior border of themanubrium and is located at the level of the third thoracic vertebra. The vertebra prominensis at the level of the seventh cervical vertebra
- Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following functions to protect the x-ray tube and patient from overexposurein the event the automatic exposure control fails to terminate an exposure?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
An AEC (automatic exposure control) is calibrated to produce radiographic densitiesas required by the radiologist for interpretation purposes. Once the part being radiographedhas been exposed to produce the required optical density, the AEC automatically terminatesthe exposure. The manual timer should be used as a backup timer should the AEC fail toterminate the exposure, thus protecting the patient from overexposure and the x-ray tubefrom excessive heat load. Circuit breakers and fuses are circuit devices used to protect circuitelements from overload. In case of current surge, the circuit will be broken (opened), thuspreventing equipment damage. A rheostat is a type of variable resistor
- Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following would be appropriate cassette front material?
1. tungsten
2. magnesium
3. BakeliteCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The cassette is used to support the intensifying screens and x-ray film. It should bestrong and provide good screen–film contact. The cassette front should be made of a sturdy
material with a low atomic number, because attenuation of the remnant beam is undesirable.Bakelite (the forerunner of today’s plastics) and magnesium (the lightest structural metal) arethe most commonly used materials for cassette fronts. The high atomic number of tungstenmakes it inappropriate as a cassette front material - Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 pointsThe following statement(s) is (are) accurate with respect to the differences between themale and female bony pelvis:
1. the female pelvic outlet is wider
2. the pubic angle is 90 degrees or fewer in the male
3. the male pelvis is more shallowCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The female pelvis differs from the male pelvis in that it is more shallow and itsbones are generally lighter and more delicate . The pelvic outlet is wider andmore circular in the female, the ischial tuberosities and acetabula are farther apart, the angle
formed by the pubic arch is also greater in the female. All these bony characteristics facilitatechildbearing and birth - Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 pointsIn the lateral projection of the foot, the:
1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the image receptor
2. metatarsals are superimposed
3. talofibular joint should be visualizedCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
When the foot is positioned for a lateral projection, the plantar surface should beperpendicular to the image receptor, so as to superimpose the metatarsals. This may be accomplishedwith the patient lying on either the affected or unaffected side (usually affected),that is, mediolateral or lateromedial. The talofibular articulation is best demonstrated in themedial oblique projection of the ankle
- Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 pointsThe factor(s) that can be used to regulate radiographic density is (are):
1. milliamperage
2. exposure time
3. kilovoltageCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Factors that regulate the number of x-ray photons produced at the target are used tocontrol radiographic density, namely milliamperage and exposure time (mAs). Radiographicdensity is directly proportional to mAs (milliampere-seconds); if the mAs is cut in half, theradiographic density will decrease by one-half. Although kilovoltage is used primarily to regulateradiogaphic contrast, it may also be used to regulate radiographic density in variable kV(kilovolts) techniques, according to the 15% rule
- Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 pointsBy which of the following tests is intensifying screen contact evaluated?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Perfect film–screen contact is essential to sharply recorded detail. Screen contactcan be evaluated with a wire-mesh test. A spinning-top test is used to evaluate timer accuracyand rectifier operation. A penetrometer (aluminum step-wedge) is used to illustrate the effectof kV on contrast. A star pattern is used to measure resolving power of the imaging system
- Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 pointsThe mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a defibrillator.The two paddles attached to the unit are placed on a patient’s chest and used to introduce an electric current in an effort to correct the dysrhythmia. A cardiac monitor is used to display,and sometimes record, electrocardiogram (ECG) readings and some pressure readings. Thecrash cart is a supply cart with various medications and equipment necessary for treating a
patient who is suffering from a myocardial infarction or other serious medical emergencies.It is periodically checked and restocked, usually by nursing, although radiographers may beresponsible for a daily check of the plastic throwaway locks. These locks are used to ensure thatthe cart has not been tampered with or supplies inadvertently used in nonemergency situations.A resuscitation bag is used for ventilation, as during cardiopulmonary resuscitation - Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 pointsThe term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
There are many terms (with which the radiographer must be familiar) that are used
to describe radiographic positioning techniques. Cephalad refers to that which is toward thehead, and caudad to that which is toward the feet. Structures close to the source or beginningare said to be proximal, while those lying close to the midline are said to be medial - Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 pointsThe blue–green PSL that corresponds to the visible x-ray image occurs:
1. immediately upon the initial prompt emission of light
2. some time after the initial prompt emission of light
3. upon stimulation by finely focused infrared lightCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
When barium fluorohalide absorbs x-ray energy, electrons are released and theydivide into two groups. One electron group initiates immediate luminescence during the excitedstate of Eu2+. The other electron group becomes trapped within the phosphor’s halogenions, forming a “color center.” These trapped phosphors are the phosphors that ultimately formthe radiographic image because when exposed to a monochromatic laser light source thesephosphors emit polychromatic light, termed photostimulated luminescence (PSL).
The PSP layer stores its latent image for several hours, however, after approximately 8 hoursnoticeable image fading will occur. The europium activator is important for the storage characteristicof the PSPs; it also has function similar to the sensitization specks within film emulsion—without europium, the image will not become manifest - Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 pointsAs a result of the anode heel effect, the intensity of the x-ray beam is greatest alongthe:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Because the anode’s focal track is beveled (angled, facing the cathode), x-ray photonscan freely diverge toward the cathode end of the x-ray tube. However, the “heel” of the focal
track prevents x-ray photons from diverging toward the anode end of the tube. This results invarying intensity from anode to cathode, fewer photons at the anode end, and more photons
at the cathode end. The anode heel effect is most noticeable using large image receptor sizes,short SIDs (source-to-image-receptor distances), and steep target angles - Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 pointsThe AP projection of the scapula requires that the:
1. patient’s arm be abducted at right angles to the body
2. patient’s elbow be flexed with hand supinated
3. exposure be made during quiet breathingCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
With the patient in the anteroposterior (AP) position, the scapula and upper thoraxare normally superimposed. With the arm abducted, the elbow flexed, and hand supinated,much of the scapula is drawn away from the ribs. The patient should not be rotated towardthe affected side, as this causes superimposition of ribs on the scapula. The exposure is madeduring quiet breathing to obliterate pulmonary vascular markings
- Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 pointsThe type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classifiedas:
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels isclassified as neurogenic shock. This occurs in cases of trauma to the central nervous system
resulting in decreased arterial resistance and pooling of blood in peripheral vessels. Cardiogenic
shock is related to cardiac failure, as a result of interference with heart function. It can occurin cases of cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolus, or myocardial infarction. Hypovolemicshock is related to loss of large amounts of blood, from either internal bleeding or hemorrhage
associated with trauma. Septic shock, as well as anaphylactic shock, is generally classified asvasogenic shock - Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 pointsWhat projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, plantar surface verticaland perpendicular to the image receptor,and central ray directed 40-degree caudad?
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
An axial dorsoplantar projection is described; the central ray enters the dorsal surfaceof the foot and exits the plantar surface. The plantodorsal projection is done supine and requirescephalad angulation. The central ray enters the plantar surface and exits the dorsal surface
- Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 pointsThe uppermost portion of the iliac crest is approximately at the same level as the
CorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Surface landmarks, prominences, and depressions are very useful to the radiographerin locating anatomic structures not visible externally. The costal margin is at about the same
level as L3. The umbilicus is approximately at the same level as the L3–L4 interspace. Thexiphoid tip is at about the same level as T10. The fourth lumbar vertebra is approximately atthe same level as the iliac crest - Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 pointsDevices that serve to collect PSL and transmit it to an ADC include:
1. photomultiplier tube
2. photodiode
3. charge-coupled deviceCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
In the CR reader, a photomultiplier tube (PMT) or photodiode (PD) is used to detectPSL and convert it to electrical signals. The electrical energy is sent to an analog-to digital converter (ADC) where it becomes the digital image that is displayed, after a short delay, ona high-resolution monitor.In indirect capture DR, a flat-panel detector uses cesium iodide or gadolinium oxysulfideas the scintillator, i.e., that which captures x-ray photons and emits light. That light thentransferred directly to the ADC via a photodetector coupling agent—a charge coupled device(CCD) or thin film transistor (TFT)
- Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 pointsWhat apparatus is needed for the construction of a characteristic curve?
1. penetrometer
2. densitometer
3. electrolytic canisterCorrectIncorrectExplanation:
Only two pieces of apparatus are needed to construct a characteristic curve . First, a penetrometer (aluminum step-wedge) is used to expose a film. Once the filmis processed, a densitometer is needed to read the resulting densities. Log relative exposure ischarted along the x (horizontal) axis; an increase in log relative exposure of 0.3 results from
doubling the exposure. Optical density is plotted on the y (vertical) axis and represents theamount of light transmitted through a film compared to the amount of light striking the film