GENERAL PRACTITIONER EXAM
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointsA man aged 72 has had an indolent, unhealing ulcer at the heel of the right foot for several weeks. The ulcer is 3.5 cm in diameter, painless, its base looks dirty, and there is hardly any granulation tissue. The skin around the ulcer looks normal. The patient has no sensation of pin prick anywhere in that foot. Peripheral pulses are weak but palpable. He is obese, has varicose veins and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following most accurately characterizes the ulcer?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Diabetic ulcers typically develop at pressure points, and the heel is a favorite location. The patient has evidence of neuropathy, and the correlation with the trauma inflicted by the new shoes is classic. Ischemic ulcers, whether due to arteriosclerosis or embolization are typically seen at the tip of the toes, as far away from the heart as one can get.
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 pointsA 72-year-old woman is referred with a breast lump.Her investigations show corrected calcium=2.72mmol/L, Phosphate =0.80mmol/L, Alkaline phosphatase=110 U/L, PTH=5.1pmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient has hypercalcaemia with a borderline low phosphate concentration but an inappropriately normal parathyroid hormone (PTH) concentration.
This suggests hyperparathyroidism, which is a relatively common disorder amongst elderly females.
The story of the breast lump in this case is endeavouring to throw the candidate.
Vitamin D excess would be expected to cause an elevated phosphate. -
Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 pointsThe best test in the long term follow up of a diabetic patient is which of the following?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
HbA1C is a test that measures the amount of glycosylated hemoglobin in your blood. The test gives a good estimate of how well diabetes is being managed over time. In particular over the past 3 months, since that is the life span of the red blood cell that contains the hemoglobin molecule.
This test measures blood sugar control over an extended period in people with diabetes. In general, the higher your HbA1C value, the higher the risk that you will develop complications from diabetes (eye disease, kidney disease. nerve damage, heart disease, and stroke). This is especially true if your HbA1C remains elevated on more than one occasion. Most physicians will consider HbA1C less than 7 as an indicator of good diabetic control. Unlike a diary, the HbA1C value does not lie. -
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 pointsA 72 year old woman comes to you for the first time. She has taken levothyroxine (Synthroid), 0.3 mg/day, for the last 20 years. Although a recent screening TSH was fully suppressed at <0.1 micro U/mL, she claims that she has felt ´awful” when previous physician have attempted to lower her dosage. You explain that a serious potential complication of her current thyroid medication is which of the following?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Women older than 65 years of age who have low serum TSH levels, indicating physiologic hyperthyroidism, are at increased risk for new hip and vertebral fractures. Use of thyroid hormone itself does not increase the risk of fracture if TSH levels are normal.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not present in Cushing syndrome?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Cushing´s syndrome is one of the secondary causes of hypertension. Therefore the blood pressure would be high. Along with Cushing´s, the other causes include Hyperaldosteronism, Aortic coarctation, Pheochromocytoma and Stenosis of renal artery. Remember the mnemonic C.H.A.P.S. for these 5 causes of secondary hypertension.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 pointsA secondary cause is suspected in one of your patient who has developed hypertension. Which test would not be part of your diagnostic work-up?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Only 5% of causes of hypertension are from a secondary cause. Remember the mnemonic C.H.A.P.S. for the causes of secondary hypertension. Those are Cushing´s, Hyperaldosteronism, Aortic coarctation, Pheochromocytoma, Stenosis of renal artery.
The diagnostic tests used to work up the above causes of secondary hypertension are cortisol level, basic metabolic panel, CT of abdomen, urinary catecholamines, renal ultrasound for Cushing´s, Hyperaldosteronism, Aortic coarctation, Pheochromocytoma and Stenosis of renal artery, respectively.
5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) is a breakdown product of the chemical messenger serotonin in the urine. 5-HIAA levels are used to detect tumors in the digestive tract (carcinoid tumors). -
Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 pointsA 57 year old woman is scheduled for an abdominal operation. She has hypothyroidism that is controlled with thyroid replacement medication and will be unable to eat or drink for 4 days following the procedure. She is concerned about receiving her thyroid medication. What should be advised to her?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Thyroxine is the hormone of choice for replacement therapy. It has a half life of seven days, and any alteration in dose is not reflected for four to six weeks. Therefore, it is very unlikely that she will develop signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism. She will not be given the medication either through the nasogastric tube or intravenously, nor does she require a preoperative loading dose.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 pointsA 31 year old woman complains of episodic faintness, tingling sensation in her hands, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. Complete medical workup reveals no pathologic condition. During an episode of these symptoms, chemical analysis of the serum will probably reveal which one of the following?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
A pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine secreting tumor of chromaffin cells typically located in the adrenals. It causes persistent or paroxysmal hypertension. Common symptoms and signs are paroxysms of tachycardia, diaphoresis, postural hypotension, tachypnea, cold and clammy skin, severe headache, angina, palpitations, nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, visual disturbances, dyspnea, paresthesias, constipation, and a sense of impending doom. Diagnosis is by measuring catecholamine products in blood or urine. Imaging tests, especially CT or MRI, help localize tumors. Treatment involves removal of the tumor when possible. Drug therapy for control of BP includes alpha-blockade possibly combined with beta blockade. Ectopic amylase production by lung, ovary, pancreas, and colon malignancies; pheochromocytoma; thymoma; multiple myeloma (increased salivary amylase); and breast cancer (increased pancreatic amylase) are miscellaneous causes of hyperamylasemia.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 pointsA 48 year old man has persistent hypertension despite taking metoprolol, Enalapril and Nifedipine. No history palpitations or flushing is present, and the patient does not use any NSAIDs. Blood pressure in your office was found to be elevated at 160/110 mmHg. Recent laboratory testing shows sodium: 146 mmol/L; potassium: 2.4 mmol/L and creatinine: 85 µmol/L. There is no proteinuria on urinalysis. The most appropriate test to arrange at this time is
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Aldosterone, a hormone produced and secreted by the adrenal glands, signals the kidneys to excrete less sodium and more potassium. Hyperaldosteronism can be caused by a tumor (usually a noncancerous adenoma) in the adrenal gland (a Condition called Conn´s syndrome), although sometimes both glands are Involved and are overactive. Sometimes hyperaldosteronism is a response to certain diseases, such as very high blood pressure (hypertension) or narrowing of one of the arteries to the kidneys. A doctor who suspects hyperaldosteronism first tests the levels of sodium and potassium in the blood. The doctor may also measure aldosterone levels. If they are high, spironolactone, a drug that blocks the actlon of aldosterone, may be given to see if the levels of sodium and potassium return to normal. In Conn´s syndrome, the levels of renin are also very low.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 pointsA diabetic patient complains of a sensation of walking on pebbles with bare feet. Physical examination reveals clawing of the toes with flexion of the interphalangeal joint and extension of the metatarsophalangeal joints. Which of the following muscle atrophies are most likely responsible for the changes observed?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The condition described in the question stem is very common among diabetics, and is due to atrophy of lumbricals and interosseus muscles secondary to diabetic neuropathy. Another finding that may be seen is the presence of corns and callosities on the dorsal surface of the feet overlying the protuberant interphalangeal joints. All of these degenerative changes add to the diabetic´s foot disease, predisposing for sores that heal poorly in the poorly vascularized diabetic foot, often leading to gangrene and requiring amputation of the distal toot. Flexor digitorum longus is an extrinsic muscle of the foot that flexes the distal phalanges of the lateral four toes and assists in plantar flexion of the foot. Peroneus longus is an extrinsic muscle of the foot that plantar-flexes and everts the 4 foot. Tibialis anterior is an extrinsic muscle of the foot that dorsi flexes and inverts the foot.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 pointsAll are associated with hypothyroid goiter, EXCEPT
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is not associated with goiters. All of the other conditions can result in goiters.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 pointsAll of the following treatments are recommended for osteoporosis EXCEPT
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Explanation:
A high-fiber diet has not been shown to increase the bone density in osteoporosis. Hormone replacement therapy can slow the progression of osteoporosis even greater than five years postmenopause. Adding progestins can decrease the incidence of endometrial hyperplasia. Slow-release fluoride has been approved by the FDA- alendronate -to inhibit osteoclastic activity and reduce the progression of osteoporosis. Calcium carbonate and vitamin D are both important nutrients for stronger bone formation. Elderly patients should also be exposed to sunlight to get enough vitamin D. Calcitonin works by directly inhibiting osteoclast activity via the calcitonin receptor. It directly induces inhibition of osteoclastic bone resorption by affecting actin cytoskeleton which is needed for the osteoclastic activity.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 pointsWhat is the treatment of hypothyroidism in a young healthy patient?
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Explanation:
Hypothyroid patients should be treated with thyroid hormone replacement. Surgical thyroidectomy and radioactive thyroid treatment will potentiate the problem. Stimulation with thyroid stimulating hormone will not be effective in patients that have depleted thyroxine stores. Hypothyroidism does not correct spontaneously
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 pointsA 26 year old woman was brought to the emergency room by her family because of an acute psychotic episode. On examination she was found to be obese with red-purple pigmented striae on her trunk. Her blood pressure was elevated to 170/96 and her glucose level was elevated to 210mg/ dl. The appropriate test of choice in order to make the correct diagnosis is
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Explanation:
This patient presents with steroid psychosis secondary to excess cortisol level from Cushing´s syndrome. Hypercortisolism can have features of “buffalo hump,” lipomatosis, hirsutism, ecchymosis, and hypertension. A 24-hour urine cortisol level (B) would be a useful screening tool. An oral glucose tolerance test (A) would tell us nothing except that the patient has diabetes. Cushing´s syndrome can cause diabetes. If one suspects hypertensive encephalopathy exclusively a CT of the brain (C) would be useful to rule out hemorrhage. Lupus patients can also present with cerebral psychosis, but none of the other features would be present. An ANA level (D) would be ordered if one suspects lupus. An elevated aldosterone level (E) is present in Conn´s syndrome. This would present with hypertension, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia. None of the other features would be present.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 pointsA 55 year old woman is brought in to the emergency room by her family because of acute mental status changes and frank psychosis. On physical exam, the patient is obese, has facial plethora and hirsutism, and stria on the abdomen. X-rays reveal osteoporosis. Her blood pressure is 170/100mmHg. Levels of the following would be elevated in this patient?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This woman has excess cortisol levels in the body. Cushing´s disease is the most common cause, and it occurs from a pituitary adenoma which secretes ACTH which in turn stimulates cortisol from the adrenal glands. Chronic cortisol elevation causes the above physical findings as well as moon facies and buffalo hump. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (A) is seen in hypothyroid-patients who have hormone cause delayed reflexes and myxedema. Elevated aldosterone levels (C) cause hypokalemia and hypertension. Primary hyperaldosteronism is due to adrenocortical adenoma or hyperplasia. Elevated vasopressin levels (D) are seen in syndrome of inappropriate ADH, and causes volume expansion and hyponatremia. Melatonin (E) is produced by the pineal gland and regulates circadium rhythm. It is usually elevated at night.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 pointsA 64 year old male has progressive fatigue, anorexia, emesis, weight loss, and vitiligo. Chest roentgenograph shows apical scarring. What is the most likely the likeliest etiology of his condition?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient has Addison´s disease. The apical scarring on chest radiography suggests old tuberculosis, which used to cause granulomatous infiltration of the adrenals in some individuals. Such infiltration can produce Addison´s. The radiographic findings and many of the patient´s symptoms are not consistent with adenocarcinoma of the lung. Hypothyroidism would not present with such a constellation of symptoms. The clinical pattern is not suggestive of sepsis or candida infection.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 pointsWeight gain and menstrual irregularities are complained by a 44-year-old female. Her BMI is 28.9 kg/m2, blood pressure is 152/88 mmHg and urinalysis shows +ve glucose. Which of the following investigations is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The diagnosis here may be Cushing´s syndrome. This is supported by the weight gain, high BMI, hypertension, menstrual irregularities and glycosuria.
There is a possibility that this vignette describes polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), but a single testosterone reading would add little information to the suspected diagnosis. However raised urinary cortisol is a relatively sensitive marker of Cushing´s.
A random aldosterone level tells you little, and an HbAlc is not an accepted screening tool, even for diabetes.
The history does not suggest prolactinoma, which may present with vague symptomatology, galactorrhoea and menstrual irregularities. -
Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 pointsA 20-year-old female diabetic is admitted with ketoacidosis. Which of the following is most appropriate concerning the use of a bicarbonate infusion?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The use of bicarbonate in DKA is controversial.
However, most authorities agree that a bicarbonate infusion may be used in subjects with a severe metabolic acidosis (pH less than 7). -
Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 pointsAn 18 year old girl previously in good health presents at emergency room with lightheadedness, headache and nausea. She appears anxious and is tremulous, sweating and breathing heavily. While waiting to see a physician, she begins to complain of tingling around her mouth and in her fingers. Your first management step for this patient would be
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The symptoms of hypoglycemia rarely develop until the level of sugar in the blood falls below 60 milligrams per deciliter of blood. Some people develop symptoms at slightly higher levels, especially when blood sugar levels fall quickly, and some do not develop symptoms until the sugar levels in their blood are much lower.
The body first responds to a fall in the level of sugar in the blood by releasing epinephrine from the adrenal glands. Epinephrine stimulates the release of sugar from body stores but also causes symptoms similar to those of an anxiety attack: sweating, nervousness, shaking, faintness, palpitations, tingling sensation; around the mouth and hunger.
More severe hypoglycemia reduces the sugar supply to the brain, causing dizziness, fatigue, weakness, headaches, inability to concentrate, confusion, inappropriate behavior that can be mistaken for drunkenness, slurred speech, blurred vision, seizures, and coma. Severe and prolonged hypoglycemia may permanently damage the brain. Symptoms can begin slowly or suddenly, progressing from mild discomfort to severe confusion or panic within minutes. -
Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 pointsA 46 year old woman is brought to the health center by her husband because of nausea, confusion, chills, fever, flank pain and cloudy urine. A history of insulin dependent diabetes mellitus, poorly controlled hypertension and recurrent urinary tract infections. Her vital signs are: temperature 40.0°C (104.0°F), pulse 120/min, respirations 24/min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. Funduscopic examination shows diabetic retinopathy, which is unchanged from the previous examination. Marked pain is present at the right costovertebral angle. Several hemorrhagic bullous lesions are noted. The patient is most likely to develop which of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The patient is presenting with signs of septic shock from pyelonephritis, including nausea, confusion, chills, fever, flank pain, and cloudy urine. The hemorrhagic extremity lesions are most likely a sign of septicemia and toxemia. Immediate treatment with intravenous antibiotics is necessary to prevent cardiopulmonary collapse and death.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 pointsA 65 year old man presents with a history paroxysms of sweating, palpitations, headaches and anxiety. This happens off and on. His blood pressure on exam is 156/95 mmHg. On further history he tells you that one of his relatives had thyroid cancer. What tests would be appropriate to perform first at this time?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient needs to be screened pheocromocytoma. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal gland which causes very high levels of the catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) to be secreted into the bloodstream. This can lead to many sympathetic nervous system symptoms like elevated blood pressure, palpitations, anxiety, diaphoresis, headaches, and weight loss. These symptoms happen in spurts or paroxysms.
Diagnosis is made by measuring the level of the catecholamines and their breakdown products or metabolites which are called metanephrines in a 24 hour urine collection. Treatment involves medicines to control the blood pressure and surgery to remove the tumor. Recall the MEN syndromes.
MEN (Multiple endocrine neoplasia) has three types:
MEN I (Warmer syndrome): Tumors of the pancreas, pituitary and parathyroid.
MEN IIa (Sipple syndrome): Medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromcytoma and tumor of the parathyroid.
MEN IIb: Medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma and neuromas. This patient could have MEN II if you consider his family history. -
Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 pointsA 72 year old man presents with lower back pain and difficulty in urination. He has also complaints of bone pain. Initial labs show an increase in serum calcium concentration. The most appropriate test at this time is
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Primary hyperparathyroidism is one of the most common causes of hypercalcemia and should be considered in any individual with an elevated calcium level. A single parathyroid adenoma is the underlying pathology in 85% of cases.
The symptoms have become known as “moans, groans, stones, and bones with psychic overtones”. They include feelings of weakness and fatigue, depression, or aches and painful bones, renal stones, abdominal groans, and psychic moans. With more severe disease, a person may have a loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, constipation, confusion or impaired thinking and memory, and increased thirst and urination. Patients may have thinning of the bones without symptoms, but with risk of fractures. Elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels in the setting of hypercalcemia establish the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism -
Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 pointsA man has a semen analysis done. It shows abnormal motility and shape, and a total sperm count of 950,000 (sperm count should be greater than 2,000,000). What would you advise him about his future fertility?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Abnormal morphology (shape) and motility can prevent the sperm from reaching the egg. The sperm need motility to be able to swim well and survive for a number of hours n the female reproductive tract. If they do meet, abnormal-looking sperm might be incapable of fertilization. The motility of this man´s sperm i.e. poor and therefore he is unlikely to be able to be fertile. In addition, infertility specialists have stated that 1 million motile sperm is the minimum amount of sperm associated with a reasonable chance of pregnancy success at intrauterine insemination. However in-vitro fertilization IVF can be used to treat Infertility due to his oligospermia. The procedure would involve controlled ovarian hyperstimulation, oocyte retrieval, and fertilization with, sperm, embryo culture, and embryo transfer. Impotence is defined as an inability to achieve and/or maintain an erection.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 pointsA 16 year old patient is taken to a physician because of severe episodic headaches, accompanied by perspiration and palpitations. The patient is experiencing headache at the time of the examination and his blood pressure is 175/125 mm Hg with regular heart rate of 90. Treatment with phenoxybenzamine relieves his symptoms. The investigation that would be most helpful for establishing the diagnosis is
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The suspected tumor is pheochromocytoma, 10% of which occur in children. This tumor arises from neural crest cells of the adrenal medulla. The symptoms » (paroxysmal hypertension, palpitations, anxiety) are produced when the tumor secretes epinephrine, norepinephrine, and other vaso active amines into the circulation. The diagnosis can be established with plasma catecholamine concentrations or concentrations of the norepinephrine metabolite VMA in a 24-hour urine. The latter offers the advantage of providing a longer time sample so that the intermittent secretion is more likely to be picked up.
Serum albumin (choice A) can be low in liver and renal disease, but is unaffected in pheochromocytoma.
Cortisol (choice B) excess is seen with Cushing syndrome.
Renin (choice C) excess is associated with renal disease, secondary hyperaldosteronism, renal cell carcinoma, and renal ischemia.
Bence-Jones proteins (Choice D) are a marker for multiple myeloma, representing urinary excretion of myeloma light chains. -
Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 pointsA 24-year old thin woman feels weak with diaphoresis, weight loss, insomnia, and menstrual abnormalities. She is tachycardic, with moist skin and a tremor along hyperreflexia. TSH is < 0.1 µIU/ml. Thyroid is tender and radioactive iodine uptake is low. She has a low-grade temperature. Diagnose:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Subacute thyroiditis is usually secondary to a viral infection. The thyroid is moderately enlarged and tender with a decrease in the radioactive iodine uptake. Analgesics are given for the pain and fever, and this disease resolves on its own over time. Preformed thyroid hormones are released from the follicles. Struma ovarii is thyroid tissue located in ovarian dermoid tumors and teratomas which autonomously secrete thyroid hormone. Thyrotoxicosis factitia is caused by ingestion of excessive amounts of exogenous thyroid hormones. This can also be caused by consumptions of ground beef contaminated with bovine thyroid gland. Grave´s disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis. It is an autoimmune disorder. The radioactive iodine uptake is increased and the thyroid gland is enlarged. Autonomous toxic adenomas of the thyroid can be single or multiple. There is increase in the radioactive iodine uptake and negative anti-thyroid antibodies in the plasma.
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 pointsObesity is commonly associated with which one of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Obesity produces a relative insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia, at least early in the development of diabetes. Facial edema (A) is not associated with obesity nor are hyperthyroidism (C), Addison´s disease (D), or hypernatremia (E).
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 pointsA patient presents with a “lump in his neck.” On physical examination a solitary, firm thyroid nodule on the left side is revealed. The nodule does not enhance during [99m Tc] pertechnetate imaging. Serum T3, T4, and TSH studies are normal, but serum Calcitonin is elevated. Biopsy of the nodule will likely demonstrate neoplastic cells most closely related to which normal cell types?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The patient probably has a medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland. These tumors are derived from the calcitonin secreting neuroendocrine C cells of the thyroid gland. Hurthle cells are altered thyroid follicular cells with very eosinophilic cytoplasm. A parathyroid tumor composed of either chief cells or oxyphil cells might secrete parathyroid hormone but not calcitonin. Thyroid glandular epithelial cells can secrete triiodothyronine and thyroxine but not calcitonin.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 pointsThe hormone that does NOT play a role in protecting against hypoglycemia is
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Explanation:
Counterregulatory hormones increase hepatic glucose production and decrease utilization in nonhepatic tissues. Glucagon, secreted by pancreatic alpha cells, is the primary counter regulatory hormone. Epinephrine and norepinephrine, released from the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system, are critical in the absence of glucagon. Cortisol and growth hormone play an important role during periods of prolonged fasting or sustained hypoglycemia. Somatomedins, also known as insulin like growth factors, are important in growth stimulation.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 pointsOut of the following, which is an X-linked dominant condition?
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Explanation:
Pseudohypoparathyroidism is inherited as an X-linked dominant with variable penetrance. Osteomalacia is not hereditary. Hemophilia is X-linked recessive. Classical gout, if it has any hereditary component, is multifactorial. Hyperparathyroidism is not known to be genetically linked.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 pointsEuthyroid goiters are NOT associated with which of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Euthyroid goiters are not associated with choriocarcinoma, an invasive cancer originating in placental tissue, but can be seen in all of the other conditions.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 pointsPatients with morbid obesity are NOT at increased risk for which of the following?
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Explanation:
Gastrointestinal bleeding is not increased in morbidly obese individuals, but all of the other conditions are.
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 pointsA 63 year old woman has hemoglobin A1c of 8.9%, and it is now recommended that she begins medication for diabetes. She takes Enalapril and aspirin and has no allergies. She also has congestive heart failure, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. Blood tests reveal a creatinine of 1.7 mg/dL. The appropriate medication to start at this time is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
In the initial decision about the choice of drug to manage hyperglycemia, one must take into account the comorbidities of the patient and relative contraindications. Insulin secretagogues such as sulfonylureas, alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, thiazolidinediones (“glitazones”), biguanides, and insulin are all approved for monotherapy for diabetes. Most patients are initially started on either a sulfonylurea or metformin, and insulin is usually given after oral agents have failed. It is important to note that sulfonylureas are contraindicated for those with significant hepatic and liver dysfunction. Glipizide primarily undergoes hepatic clearance and should be used preferentially in patients with mild-to moderate renal dysfunction. Metformin, a biguanide, has a serious potential complication of lactic acidosis. The risk of lactic acidosis is increased in patients with heart failure, liver disease, severe hypoxia, any form of acidosis, intravenous contrast administration, and renal insufficiency; it is recommended that use of metformin be avoided in men with creatinine higher than 1.5 mg/dL and women with creatinine higher than 1.4 mg/dL. Thiazolidinediones such as rosiglitazone reduce insulin resistance by binding PPAR gamma receptors, and older generations of this class of drugs are associated with liver toxicity. They are associated with exacerbations of congestive heart failure and peripheral edema. -
Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 pointsA 52 year old male is brought to the emergency department in a coma. The man had been complaining about having to urine at night over the past few months. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 70/30 mmHg, and pulse is 130 beats/min. Investigation shows the following:
- Plasma glucose = 1,200 mm/dL
- Serum osmolarity = 380 mOsm/L
- Ketone bodies = negative
- PCO2 = 40mmHg
The likely cause of decreased cardiac output in him is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar nonketotic coma present with hyperglycemia, increased serum osmolarity, and osmotic diuresis. In both cases, the hyperosmolarity is due to fluid loss because of the osmotic diuresis produced by the excess filtered glucose. However, the absence of ketone bodies eliminates ketoacidosis. Ketoacidosis usually is absent in insulin resistance, primarily because even small amounts of effective insulin are able to prevent lipolysis. Without sufficient free fatty acids, the liver is unable to produce ketone bodies. The osmotic diuresis caused by excessive glucose in the urine reduces blood volume, so cardiac output declines. Osmotic diuresis due to hyperglycemia is more likely to produce hypernatremia than hyponatremia. Increased parasympathetic nervous system activity is not expected, because hypotension provokes a reflex decrease of parasympathetic nervous system activity. Peripheral edema is not typical of nonketotic hyperglycemia because serum albumin is often not grossly depressed. -
Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 pointsA boy aged 17 years presents with a three week history of thirst, polyuria, balanitis and weight loss. The most appropriate next investigation is which one of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient obviously has diabetes mellitus and the diagnosis should be confirmed with either a fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/l or a random plasma glucose above 11.1 mmol/l.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 pointsA 71 year old female is receiving amiodarone for paroxysmal atrial tachycardia. She presents with tiredness and weight loss. Investigations reveal C-reactive protein of 6 mg/L (<10), free Thyroxine of 38 pmol/L (10-22), and TSH of <0.05 mU/L (0.4-5). The most appropriate treatment for her is
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The most appropriate initial treatment of this amiodarone induced hyperthyroidism would be carbimazole. Despite stopping the amiodarone thyrotoxicosis may persist for many months and so additional treatment is often required. Two types of amiodarone induced hyperthyroidism recognized. The first being a consequence of iodine overload contained within the amiodarone of which the above is a typical example and the second type is due to an acute thyroiditis with thyroid cell destruction and increased parameters of inflammation. The former is best treated with carbimazole, the latter with prednisolone.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 pointsA 43 year old male has thirst, weight loss and polyuria. His mother and aunt both have diabetes. He is overweight with a BMI of 27. He admits to feel weaker recently. Serum creatinine is 145 µmol/l (60-120) and fasting glucose is 14.1 mmol/l (<7.0). According to the ADA/EASD consensus algorithm 2006 the most appropriate initial therapy for him is which one of the following?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This man has significant hyperglycaemia and symptoms of catabolism weight loss, thirst, polyuria, etc. In this case the consensus recommends moving straight to insulin therapy, both for rapid control of glucose levels with symptom resolution, and because type I diabetes cannot be excluded in this case. Depending on circumstances, oral medications can be added later insulin even withdrawn in some cases.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 pointsA 33 year old female with known hyperthyroidism is admitted to hospital. Her blood pressure is 86/53 mmHg and her pulse 100/min. Labs reveal serum sodium of 126mmol/L (137-144), potassium is 5.8mmol/L (3.5-4.9), glucose is 3.0mmol/L (3.0-6.0). The most appropriate next investigation is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This young woman probably has an autoimmune hypothyroidism and now presents with features typical of acute hypoadrenalism. The biochemistry os also supportive with low sodium, low glucose and elevated potassium. The diagnosis may be confirmed with inadequate cortisol response in the short synacthen test. A random cortisol concentration is not adequate to diagnose hypoadrenalism.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is a useful therapy for improving fertility in polycystic ovarian syndrome?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Metformin has been shown to increase the rate of conception in PCOS through improved insulin sensitivity. Ethinyloestradiol and cyproterone acetate combine to form Dianette the oral contraceptive. Spironolactone is used for hirsuitism but is teratogenic. Glibenclamide is not used in PCOS.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 pointsA 25 year old woman is being treated for autoimmune hypothyroidism. She is taking 150µg of thyroxine and 200 mg of amiodarone. Her plasma prolactin level is 654 mU/L, plasma free T4 is 24 pmol/L (10-22), plasma free T3 is 5.2 pmol/L (5-10) and plasma TSH is 68 mU/L (0.4-5). The most likely explanation for high TSH levels is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This young woman has a slightly elevated thyroxine (T4) and an elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). The most probable explanation is poor compliance. This also explains the slightly high prolactin concentration too; a consequence of reduced dopaminergic tone on the lactotrophs. The typical scenario is that the patients take their medication in the days before the clinic.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 pointsDose of prednisolone that is equivalent in its glucocorticoid potency to 20mg of hydrocortisone is which one of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
It is important to know the relative potencies of the glucocorticoids. Dexamethasone for instance is roughly 30 times more potent than hydrocortisone.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 pointsCorrect statement concerning transferrin is which one of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Pregnancy and the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) both increase transferrin level. Iron is carried in the blood bound to transferrin Fe2+ (ferrous iron) is oxidised to Fe3+ (ferric iron) by caeruloplasmin to bind to transferrin which is about one third saturated with iron. The saturation of transferrin (plasma iron concentration/TIBC X 100) is used as a measure of iron stores. A value below 16% is indicative of iron deficiency. The transferrin level and the TIBC rise in iron deficiency. Pregnancy and the OCP both increase transferrin levels; whereas transferrin and TIBC fall in iron overload, percentage saturation is increased in haemochromatosis.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 pointsA 46-year-old man presents with headaches and low libido. He is found to be hypopituitary. The CT scan shows a pituitary tumour with suprasellar extension. Which of the following structures is likely to be compressed?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Superior extension of the tumour can lead to compression of firstly the optic apparatus and later the hypothalamus.
Lateral extension of the tumour with compression or invasion of the cavernous sinus can compromise third fourth or sixth cranial nerve function, manifest as diplopia in 5 to 15 % of pituitary tumour patients.
The optic chiasm lies 5-10mm above the diaphragm sellae and anterior to the stalk.
Adenomas larger than 1.5cm frequently have suprasellar extension and a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan will show compression and upward displacement of the optic chiasm. -
Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 pointsA 69 year old woman is hospitalized for pneumonia. She appears acutely ill and slightly lethargic. Her examination is consistent with right lower lobe pneumonia but is otherwise normal. Her pulse rate is 90 beats/min and regular. Her weight is normal for height. Her TSH level is 9.0microU/mL (N 1.0-5.0). What is the most appropriate initial step for managing her thyroid abnormality?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The likelihood that this patient has significant thyroid disease is very low given the minimal elevation of TSH, normal clinical examination, and concomitant pneumonia. The elevated TSH level is likely due to her illness rather than to any underlying psychiatric condition. Even if she had a palpable thyroid, her risk of hypothyroidism would be on the order of 5%. A TSH level ≥ 20 U/mL in an acutely ill patient reflects true hypothyroidism only about 49% of the time. It is likely that this patient has sick euthyroid syndrome and that follow-up thyroid testing after discharge when she has recovered is appropriate and is very likely to be normal. Free T4, rT3, and TSH levels would be appropriate for subsequent evaluation if the patient´s laboratory values did not return to normal after resolution of the pneumonia.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 pointsA healthy 70 year old female comes to your office for a follow-up visit. She has hypertension which is well is well controlled with an ACE inhibitor. Routine laboratory tests are normal except for a serum calcium level of 10.9 mg/dL (N8.5-10.5). A repeat calcium level is 11.1 mg/dL. The most appropriate at this point is
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
In primary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcemia is the result of excessive PTH secretion by one or more abnormal, enlarged parathyroid glands. Laboratory findings in most patients with primary hyperparathyroidism reflect the mild clinical presentation of the disorder. The serum calcium level is often 1 mg/dL or more above the upper limits of normal. Bone radiographs may show the classic changes of subperiosteal bone resorption in the occasional patient with hyperparathyroidism, but in most cases they are normal or may show osteopenia. Osteocalcin is an osteroblast specific protein. It is a marker of increased skeletal turnover, and it is usually not indicated clinically. The development of highly sensitive and specific assays for intact, largely active PTH has simplified the assessment of parathyroid activity. Bone densitometry is a test to determine-the degree of osteoporosis.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 pointsAll of the following are true regarding diabetic neuropathy EXCEPT
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Explanation:
The more severe and long-standing is the diabetes, the worse the neuropathy. Distal symmetrical diabetic polyneuropathy is the most common because of its refractoriness to therapy. Diabetic third nerve palsy, proximal neuropathies, compression neuropathy (carpal tunnel syndrome), and autonomic neuropathies can also occur in long-standing diabetes. Diabetic proximal motor neuropathy is vascular in origin because the blood vessels that supply the motor nerves become damaged and result in progressive nerve ischemia. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial Research Group showed that intensive treatment with insulin injections delays onset and slows progression of diabetic neuropathy, retinopathy, and nephropathy. Very little can be done to restore sensation, but foot ulcers.
Osteomyelitis and Charcot joints can be prevented by having a physician check the foot every six months and by keeping the toenails clipped and cleaned. Symptoms of pain caused by neuropathy can sometimes be alleviated by adjusting the doses of amitriptyline, phenytoin, desipramine, and topical capsaicin. Topical capsaicin works by inhibiting substance P in the superficial nerve fibers and diminishing the sensation of tenderness. -
Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 pointsA patient on total parenteral nutrition develops weight loss and abnormal hair pigmentation. What is the most likely deficiency?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
During chronic total parenteral nutrition, deficiencies in trace elements may manifest. Deficiency in zinc can produce a rash; poor wound healing, alopecia, and taste and smell disturbances. Copper deficiency may manifest as an iron-unresponsive anemia or pancytopenia. Manganese deficiency may present with weight loss, altered hair pigmentation, and low serum triglycerides. Symptoms of magnesium deficiency include: hyperexcitability, dizziness, muscle weakness and fatigue.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 pointsA 28 year old man discovers a mass in his neck. Physical examination reveals a 2 cm mass in one thyroid lobe that does not concentrate radioisotopes on a thyroid scan. Nodule aspiration reveals small “solid balls” of neoplastic follicular cells. They contain microscopic blood vessels and fibrous stroma in their centers. Most likely associated with the diagnosis of this condition is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The distinctive cell balls described are broken off papillary clusters, and are considered pathognomic of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid. This is the most common form of thyroid carcinoma. It tends to present in the third to fifth decades of life and shows a modest female predominance. Despite its propensity for local lymphatic intrusion (which may cause multifocality of tumor in the thyroid or cervical lymph node metastases) the tumor generally has an excellent prognosis with 90% of the patients having 20 year survival. It is typically associated with a history of radiation to the neck. Pretibial myxedema is associated with Graves´s disease, the most common form of hyperthyroidism. Weight gain is associated with hypothyroidism. If anything, the patient´s cancer would likely lead to weight loss. Cold intolerance is also associated with hypothyroidism. Heat intolerance is seen with hyperthyroidism, as in patients with Grave´s disease.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 pointsHirsutism in women is NOT caused by
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Ovarian cancer does not produce hirsutism. However, hirsutism is a common component of polycystic ovaries, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, Cushing´s syndrome, and minoxidil.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 pointsA 48 year old woman presents to the physician complaining of several weeks of drenching night sweats. She is noticing increased irritability and fatigue. Her appetite is good and her weight is stable. Similar episodes occur during the day time also. On physical examination she is afebrile and has no abnormal physical findings. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient is likely undergoing menopause. Drenching night sweats and daytime sweating (“hot flashes”) are very common, as are occasional mood changes. A patient with a systemic infection, such as miliary tuberculosis, AIDS, or subacute bacterial endocarditis, would be likely to have some anorexia, weight loss, true fevers, and other manifestations of the constitutional illness. Hyperthyroidism is not associated with such pronounced sweating.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 pointsA 30 year old male with type I diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, weakness, polyurea, and polydipsia. His blood glucose was 610 mg/dl. Blood pH was found to be 7.24. Diabetic ketoacidosis is suspected. Which of the following criteria can NOT be used to diagnose diabetic ketoacidosis?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Most patients with DKA present with high white blood cell counts without a left shift. If the leukocytosis is greater than 25,000/mL, a bacterial infection should be suspected as a predisposing cause for DKA. Hyperglycemia in diabetics increases the risk for diabetic ketoacidosis. It increases serum osmolality and overproduction of glucose by the liver leads to impaired glucose utilization by peripheral tissues. Lack of insulin production by the beta cells of the pancreas leads to diabetic ketoacidosis in type I (insulindependent) diabetics. Patients with diabetic ketoacidosis have a high anion gap (greater than 12) metabolic acidosis secondary to decreases in serum bicarbonate levels. Nitroprusside detects serum ketones which are elevated in DKA. Ketonemia is caused by beta hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetic acid levels greater than 3 mmol/L. Infection, trauma, stroke, pancreatitis, lack of adequate insulin, and steroid therapy all are precipitating factors which can cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Bicarbonate levels less than 15 meq/L cause metabolic acidosis, which is seen in DKA. -
Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is responsible for cretinism?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Maternal iodine deficiency is responsible for cretinism. Plumbism is lead intoxication. Wilson´s disease is a genetic abnormality of ceruloplasmin which results in abnormal copper metabolism. Cystic fibrosis and maternal anemia also are not related to cretinism.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 pointsAn 18-year-old female presents with tingling and muscle cramps. There is no other past medical history of note. Her creatinine is 70 micromol/L, Calcium is 1.74 mmol/L and Albumin is 37.9 g/L. Which one of the following investigations is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient has low calcium which could be due to either Vitamin D deficiency or hypoparathyroidism.
The most likely cause in a young patient who has otherwise been quite well with normal renal function would therefore be hypoparathyroidism. Urine calcium concentrations are useful in familial hypercalciuric hypocalcaemia (as opposed to the more common familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia). -
Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 pointsA 45-year-old female is hypothyroid and takes thyroxine 50 micrograms daily. Which of the following is the most useful test tor assessing the appropriateness of thyroid hormone replacement in primary hypothyroidism?
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Explanation:
TSH has been recognized as an exquisitely sensitive indicator of thyroid status. A normal TSH result suggests adequate thyroid hormone replacement and euthyroidism. Similarly elevated TSH with normal thyroid hormone concentrations would suggest poor compliance and suppressed TSH with normal high T4 suggests over-replacement.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 pointsA 48-year-old has marked shortness of breath that deteriorated over the last two weeks. He has a hard, irregular thyroid mass with no retrosternal extension and he has some difficulty breathing. He appears clinically euthyroid. Diagnose!
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient is likely to have anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid with compression/ infiltration of the trachea. This is unlikely to be a multinodular goiter as this would be unlikely to compress the trachea unless retrosternal and the description is more compatible with a thyroid malignancy. Medullary thyroid cancer is associated most often with MEN II and would be particularly unusual. Again follicular would be unlikely to produce such marked infiltrative features in such a short period of time. Typically patients with follicular disease would present with a nodule and/or LAP.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 pointsA cause of thyrotoxicosis characterized by a decreased radioactive iodine uptake is
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Explanation:
Thyrotoxicosis with a high 24-hours radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU) is caused by Graves´ disease, toxic multinodular goiter, a solitary hot nodule, a TSH-secreting pituitary tumor, molar pregnancy, and choriocarcinoma. Thyrotoxicosis with a low 24-hour RAIU may be the result of subacute thyroiditis, sporadic silent thyroiditis, postpartum lymphocyctic thyroiditis, radiation-induced thyroiditis, iodine-induced thyroiditis, thyrotoxicosis factita, metastatic follicular thyroid cancer, and struma ovarii.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 pointsA 32 year old woman complains of episodic faintness, tingling sensation in her hands, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. Complete blood picture, BUN, creatinine, serum electrolytes and arterial blood gas is within normal limits. During an episode of these symptoms chemical analysis of the serum will probably reveal
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Incorrect
Explanation:
A pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine secreting tumor of chromaffin cells typically located in the adrenals. It causes persistent or paroxysmal hypertension.
Common symptoms and signs are paroxysms of tachycardia, diaphoresis, postural hypotension, tachypnea, cold and clammy skin, severe headache, angina, palpitations, nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, visual disturbances, dyspnea, paresthesias, constipation, and a sense of impending doom. Diagnosis is by measuring catecholamine products in blood or urine. Imaging tests, especially CT or MRI, help localize tumors. Treatment involves removal of the, tumor when possible. Drug therapy for control of BP includes alpha-blockade, possibly combined with β-blockade. Ectopic amylase production by lung, ovary, pancreas, and colon malignancies; pheochromocytoma; thymoma; multiple myeloma (increased salivary amylase); and breast cancer (increased pancreatic amylase) are miscellaneous causes of hyperamylasemia. -
Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 pointsHypocalcemia is NOT associated with which one of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Hypocalcemia is not associated with ingestion of Aminophylline. It can be a manifestation of magnesium deficiency (A) pancreatitis (B), hypoparathyroidism (C), and acute rhabdomyolysis (D).
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT a potential side effect of chronic high dose oral steroid administration?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Chronic high dose corticosteroid ingestion does not cause hyperthyroidism, but diabetes mellitus, osteoporosis, thrush, and cataracts are all potential side effects of steroid treatment.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is FALSE regarding the role of estrogen replacement therapy in osteoporosis?
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Explanation:
Estrogen users have a 50% decrease in mortality from cardiovascular disease. In a ten year study of 50,000 postmenopausal women, investigators found that estrogen use was associated with a reduction in the incidence of coronary artery disease. This effect seems to be based on elevating the level of HDL and lowering the level of LDL. The risk of fractures decreases with increasing the duration of estrogen therapy. Estrogen deficiency is associated with uncoupling of resorption and formation, and, thus, an increase in bone resorption. This leads to osteoporosis and an increased incidence of bone fractures. These mild, unpleasant side effects of long-term estrogen use occur in 5%-10% of women taking the standard dose of 0.625 mg/day. The risk of breast and endometrial cancer is an important issue in women who take estrogen replacement therapy. The increased risk was associated with five or more years of hormonal therapy and was greater among women 60-64 years old. Women who plan, to take unopposed estrogen should undergo routine pelvic examination, Pap smear, and endometrial evaluation before beginning therapy. Breast examination and mammography should be done annually in all women over 50 years of age. -
Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following drug CANNOT affect the glucose tolerance test?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Acetaminophen does not affect the glucose tolerance test. Nicotine and caffeine can produce apparent hyperglycemia during a glucose tolerance test, while ethanol and aspirin can produce low glucose levels.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 pointsAll of the following are features of hypocalcemia, EXCEPT
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Explanation:
First degree heart block is not associated with hypocalcemia. The electrocardiographic finding that is associated with hypocalcemia is a prolonged QT interval. Tetany, seizures, bronchospasm, and paresthesias all are manifestations of hypocalcemia.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 pointsA 38 year old female presents with polyuria and is passing 4 liters of urine per day. She was recently started on a new medication. Her serum sodium is 144 mmol/L (137-144), plasma osmolality is 299mosmol/L (275-290) and urine osmolality is 210mosmol/L (350-1000). The drug that was likely prescribed is
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Explanation:
This lady has eunatraemia, hypertonicity (high serum osmolality) inappropriately dilute urine) which is consistent with Diabetes insipidus. Of the drugs listed Lithium would be the most likely cause a nephrogenic DI.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 pointsA 41 year old man is referred for resistant hypertension. He is taking following medications: Atenolol, Ramipril, Doxazosin, Amlodipine and Bendroflumethiazide. His BP is 162/96 mmHg. Labs reveal serum urea of 4.4 mmol/L, creatinine of 88 µmol/L (60-110) and K+ of 3.6 mmol/L. The medication to be discontinued before testing his aldosterone/plasma renin activity ratio is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Beta blockers and spironolactone need to be discontinued prior to measuring aldosterone and renin concentrations. Beta-blockers cause elevation of the renin concentrations and hence produce a spuriously low PRA: Aldosterone ratio. ACE inhibitors on the other hand may actually improve the sensitivity of the test.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 pointsA 48 year old diabetic male managed with metformin 1 g twice daily has recently been started on exanatide because he is morbidly obese and still failing to achieve adequate blood glucose control. His BMI is 41. HbA1c is 7.2% (<5.5). He asks about blood glucose monitor for his glucoses. Which statement is consistent with the recommendations in the consensus?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Generally, if patients are not using insulin, sulphonylureas or glinides (Repaglinide or Netaglinide), then the consensus does not recommend self-monitoring of blood glucose levels. With respect to insulin titration however, self monitored blood glucose results play a crucial part in appropriate dose adjustment. The consensus recommends a target of between 3.9 and 7.2 mmol/l for fasting and pre-prandial glucose levels. If fasting levels are in range yet the HbA1c is elevated, post-prandial monitoring is recommended, aiming for glucose levels of less than 10 mmol/l
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 pointsA 33 year old overweight male complains of excessive tiredness and nocturia. His BMI is 34 and BP is 155/90 mm/Hg. His Hb is 12.3 g/dl, creatinine is 120 µmol/l (60-120) and fasting glucose is 12.9 mmol/l (<7.0). According to the ADA/EASD consensus algorithm 2006, the appropriate managements for him is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The authors state in their consensus document that over time diet a lifestyle measures fail to maintain the desired degree of weight loss or glucose control. For this reason they recommend commencing metformin concurrently with these interventions at the point of diagnosis.
They state the recommendation is made because of metformin´s:
– glucose lowering effect without significant hypoglycaemia
– lack of weight gain
– generally high level of acceptance and
– low cost.
In patients who cannot take metformin they recommend the use of either sulphonylurea or insulin.
They do not recommend one of the newer agents such as a glitazone or dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DPPIV) inhibitor as a first line alternative Reference: Nathan et al. 29 (8): 1963. (2006). -
Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 pointsA 71 year old diabetic male with poor glycaemic control has a history of two previous myocardial infarctions, and gets exertional angina at 50 yards. He has diabetic maculopathy, and distal sensory neuropathy. His current treatment includes ; metformin 500 mg three times a day, glimepiride 4 mg daily, insulin detemir 20 units at night, Perindopril 8 mg every day, furosemide 80 mg daily, aspirin 75 mg daily and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. HbA1c is 9.2%, fasting glucose is 13.4 mmol/L and creatinine is 130 µmol/L. LFTs are normal. Which strategy is appropriate for his glycaemic control?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient has uncontrolled glycaemia despite the current dose of Insulin glargine, oral hypoglycaemic therapy and dietary intervention. Rosiglitazone is already contraindicated because of the history of heart failure and the use of insulin. The current basal insulin regime of the insulin analogue detemir is failing to control his glycaemia; however the current dose is inadequate. Current practice would favour increasing the dose of detemir aiming for a fasting (pre-breakfast) BM of <7.0. Only once fasting readings of this level are achieved, (with a sub optimal HbA1c), would one think of adding a prandial insulin. The caveat would be nocturnal hypoglycaemia, in which case a chance the insulin regime would be warranted, however this was not mentioned in the vignette.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 pointsA 54 year old man is brought to the emergency department with an episode of collapse. He had been feeling increasingly tired with polyuria for the last months and also has a loss of libido. He underwent a trans-sphenoidal surgery 2 years ago, followed by external beam radiation for a non functional pituitary adenoma. On exam, his pulse is 102/min and regular, and BP is 104/66 mmHg in the lying position, dropping to 80/40 mmHg on standing. Rest of the exam is normal. Serum testosterone, plasma LH, TSH and free T4 are low. The appropriate immediate treatment for this man is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient is likely to have secondary hypoadrenalism following his pituitary surgery or his radiotherapy. Hypopituitarism may develop indolently after radiotherapy and patients should be monitored closely for this potential complication. He requires hydrocortisone replacement therapy at a physiological dose – 10 mg/5 mg/5 mg, mimicking the diurnal cortisol profile. This diagnosis should not be missed as the consequences may be catastrophic. Hydrocortisone replacement is an urgent measure which may be life-saving, testosterone and thyroxine replacement should then be considered.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statement is correct regarding the treatment of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
In the treatment of CAH the lowest dose of glucocorticoid that suppresses (not totally) adrenal androgens, whilst maintaining normal growth and weight gain, is the optimum dose of glucocorticoid replacement. Renin activity levels can be used to monitor adequacy of mineralocorticoid and sodium replacement. Hydrocortisone has a relatively short half life and must therefore be administered twice daily, whilst the preferred mode of glucocorticoid replacement in children is hydrocortisone as it minimises growth suppression. Over treatment with mineralocorticoids leads to hypertension, suppressed plasma rennin activity and possibly growth retardation.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 pointsA 27 year old woman has a 6 week history of galactorrhoea. She takes medication for contraception, dyspepsia and migraine. Exam reveals slight galactorrhoea with expression from both breasts but is otherwise normal. Her prolactin level is 915 mU/L (< 450). The drug that may be responsible is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Metoclopramide acts as a dopamine antagonist. Dopamine inhibits the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland. Therefore, metoclopramide can predispose to hyperprolactinaemia and consequent galactorrhoea.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 pointsA 25 year old male body builder and his wife have been trying to conceive for 3 years. He is found to be azospermic. MRI of the pituitary shows no abnormality. LH is <1.0 IU/L (3.6 -17.1), FSH is <1.0 IU/L (2.25 -20) and testosterone is 16.0 nmol/l (9 -34.7). The likely diagnosis is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The most likely diagnosis is steroid induced hypogonadism. Body builders may be involved in the illicit use of anabolic and androgenic steroids. These results are consistent with ongoing use of androgens. The hypogonadism if persistent may be treated with human chorionic gonadotropin. In the event of a non-functioning pituitary tumour, the testosterone would be low together with the LH and FSH, and an MRI of the pituitary would not miss this diagnosis. The GH axis would also be likely to be suppressed, and a low IGF-1 would result. In the event of androgen insensitivity, the patient may appear phenotypically female. One would expect a low testosterone in isolated gonadotrophin deficiency. Kallman´s syndrome results in hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. A teratoma is unlikely to cause hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statement is correct regarding diabetic retinopathy?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
MAS are capillary aneurysms. Haemorrhages are collections of exudated lipid and protein. C is correct; multiple CWS are a pre-proliferative sign. Haemorrhages (or HEs) close to the fovea represent a risk of macular oedema and are therefore sight threatening Laser destroys ischaemic but viable retina to reduce the secretion of angiogenic growth factors and allow new vesel regresion, it is not applied directly to new vessels as this would cause bleeding.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 pointsA 21 year old asthmatic male is found to be hypertensive. Labs reveal serum sodium of 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium of 2.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) and bicarbonate of 30 mmol/L (20-28). The most likely diagnosis is
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This is a tough question as a number of answers are possible. This young asthmatic has a hypokalaemic hypertension and I´m assuming that his hypertension is sustained. This would therefore suggest a secondary cause which may be either hyperaldosteronism or pseudohyperaldosteronism. A rare CAH 11-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (11-BHSD) deficiency) may be responsible for hypokalaemic hypertension and the presentation is variable ranging from birth to adulthood but typically birth. Bartter´s syndrome is not associated with hypertension. Conn´s syndrome is usually found in middle aged patients and would be unusual in a patient of this age but even so is probably the best answer here. Liquorice ingestion could again fit this picture but would again be somewhat unusual in this patient. Salbutamol may cause hypokalaemia particularly when given via nebuliser or particularly IV but should not produce hypertension.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 pointsA 16 year old girl weighs 80 kg. She has a 6 month history of excessive weight gain and weakness. On exam she had central obesity with abdominal striae, a blood pressure of 178/96 mmHg and proximal muscle weakness. Urinalysis showed glucose ++. The appropriate initial investigation for this patient is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient is likely to have Cushing´s syndrome. It is a difficult choice between an overnight dexamethasone suppression test and the urine free cortisol estimation but on balance, the simplest test would be urine free cortisol assessment. In the dexamethasone suppression test 25-30 micrograms/kg is used (maximum 2mg), so the amount suggested in this question is too small. 9 am cortisol and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) concentrations will not confirm the diagnosis. A short Synacthen test is used to confirm hypoadrenalism.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 pointsA 58 year old male´s diabetes was deteriorating with blood glucose readings of 9-12 at home despite following a diet and taking regular exercise.
He is taking Rosiglitazone for diabetes. His BMI is 29, BP is 128/74 mmHg and pulse is 63/min. He has some pitting oedema in the lower limbs. He is obese with no organomegaly. HbA1c is 8.5%. The best way to treat his glycaemic control isCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient is likely to be insulin resistant; however there is evidence of heart failure and fluid overload, so use of thiazolinediones (Rosiglitazone or Pioglitazone) are absolutely contraindicated. These drugs promote fluid retention by means of an action on the collecting ducts of the kidney so promoting sodium and water retention. The only appropriate action therefore is to stop Rosiglitazone, substituting this with the insulin secretagogue gliclazide which will hopefully improve his glycaemic control.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 pointsA 50-year-old woman with diabetes since childhood brings her glucose log shown as follows: Sunday Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday 8 AM 101 122 145 99 123 100 90 11 AM 189 170 190 211 169 202 150 4 PM 134 100 112 131 145 87 98 9 PM 278 100 103 132 111 108 100 Numbers reflect glucose in mg/dL
8AM sugars are fastingWhich of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient has fairly good glucose control with the exception of her 11 AM glucose measurement. These pre-lunch sugars reflect her morning regular insulin dose. AM regular insulin will peak in 2 to 4 hours, which should coincide with the increased serum glucose that occurs after eating and digesting breakfast. Increasing AM regular insulin would therefore be helpful in decreasing her 11 AM blood sugars.
Patients with type I diabetes do not respond well to oral medications. This is because the mechanism for their poor glucose control is different from that found in type II diabetes. Type I patients have no problem with insulin resistance and no ability to increase their own insulin production; therefore, conventional oral diabetes medication will not be effective.
Because our patient´s 4 pm sugars are fairly well controlled, adjusting her pre-breakfast NPH is incorrect. The 4 PM glucose measurements are a reflection of the patient´s morning NPH insulin dose. Remembering that the peak action of NPH insulin is 6 to 12 hours after administration should help one remember that the NPH in the morning will help the patient control the glucose surge that occurs after lunchtime. We risk hypoglycemia by increasing the NPH at this time.
Increasing pre-dinner regular insulin is incorrect. Our patient´s 9 PM sugars are a reflection of pre-dinner regular insulin doses. Although our patient does have elevated glucose on Sunday, the remainder of her blood sugars at 9 PM is excellent. This isolated hyperglycemic episode might be caused by a dietary indiscretion on Sunday night. Further history would likely clarity.
Making no changes at this time is not appropriate because our patient is a young woman with long history of diabetes. Good glucose control in this patient may prevent or delay the complications of diabetes, including blindness and kidney disease. Our goal should be to mimic the blood sugars of a patient not effected by diabetes. -
Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 pointsA 55-year-old schoolteacher attends with weight loss and sweats. She is clinically thyrotoxic with a diffuse goiter. Investigations show free T4=40 pmol/l, free T3=9.8 nmol/l and TSH=6.1 mU/l. A repeat TFT is similar. What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient is thyrotoxic; however, as the non-suppressed thyroid- stimulating hormone (TSH) suggests that this is due to excessive TSH production by the pituitary gland, the possibility of a thyrotroph adenoma must be pursued.
In primary hyperthyroidism the TSH should always be suppressed by negative feedback, which is not the case here. TSH-omas are indeed very rare, but the giveaway would be the normal or elevated TSH with thyrotoxicosis. -
Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 pointsWhat is the drug choice for an obese diabetic type 2 patient?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Metformin has been clearly established as the drug of choice in obese patients with diabetes mellitus. Metformin is as effective as sulphonylureas at reducing HbA1C, and most importantly has a beneficial effect on overall mortality in obese patients.
Metformin monotherapy is unlikely to be effective in patients who fail to respond to sulphonylureas, but in patients who are secondary failures to sulphonylureas the addition of metformin causes substantial blood glucose lowering. Metformin should be avoided in patients with renal dysfunction. Otherwise its effects on bodyweight, serum lipids and its lack of hypoglycemia effect make it an excellent first line agent. -
Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 pointsA young female presents a feature of cold intolerance, fatigue, anorexia, weight gain and dry skin. Her TSH is increased and FreeT4 is low. The most appropriate treatment is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Hypothyroidism is thyroid hormone deficiency. It is diagnosed by clinical features such as a typical facies, hoarse slow speech, and dry skin, and by low levels of thyroid hormones. Management includes treatment of the underlying cause and administration of thyroxine.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following individuals would be the best candidate for use of an insulin pump?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
A patient who is compliant with his diet and his insulin, tests his blood as directed, and still has glucose levels that are out of control is the best candidate for implantation of an insulin pump that would provide continuous administration of insulin. Use of the pump is neither necessary nor medically appropriate in any of the other types of patients.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT associated with insulin resistance?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Insulin resistance may result from prereceptor, receptor, or postreceptor abnormalities. In diabetics with full-blown resistance, prereceptor resistance to insulin antibodies is present (A). Obesity the most common cause of insulin resistance, a postreceptor defect, with failure to activate tyrosine kinase, is present (B). Leprechaunism is associated with mutations in the insulin receptor (E). Several syndromes have been associated with acanthosis nigricans. In the type A syndrome affecting young women with reproductive abnormalities, mutations of the insulin receptor have been described. In type B women, insulin resistance results from blocking antibodies to the insulin receptor (D). A rare disorder, pineal hyperplasia syndrome, is associated with insulin resistance (C).
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 pointsA 23 year old woman is found to have diabetes insipidus and has exophthalmus. Multiple skull lesions are seen on radiographic studies of head. The most likely diagnosis is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
While Hand-Schuller-Christian disease (A), Letterer-Siwe disease (B), and eosinophilic granuloma (C) are all subtypes of Langerhand´s cell histiocytosis, the classical triad of Hand-Schuller- Christian disease is skull lesions, diabetes insipidus, and exopthalmus. Letterer-Siwe disease can also present this way; however, it occurs predominantly in males. Eosinophilic granulomas can occur in men and women, as well as children; however, typically the skull lesions are unifocal. Waldenstrom´s macroglobulinemia (D) and cryoglobulinemia (E) do not present in this way.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 pointsIn diabetics, hypoglycemia may result from all of the following EXCEPT
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Drugs and medications used in the treatment of diabetes may produce hypoglycemia, particularly if “tight” control is undertaken. Propranolol decreases the glycogenolytic response to epinephrine and blunts awareness of hypoglycemia due to epinephrine release. Diabetic persons are more likely than those of the general population to develop polyglandular autoimmune deficiency, with its associated adrenal insufficiency. Hypoglycemia results from high levels of circulating insulin antibodies. Renal disease produces hypoglycemia through decreased clearance of drugs, anorexia associated with renal failure, and through reduced gluconeogenesis. The Smogi phenomenon refers to rebound hyperglycemia following an episode of hypoglycemia due to counter-regulatory release. Changing exercise patterns resulting in a haphazard fashion may precipitate hypoglycemia.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following hormones plays an important role in the development of diabetic ketoacidosis in addition to insulin deficiency?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Development of diabetic ketoacidosis results from the combination of insulin deficiency and excessive secretion of counterregulatory hormones. The most important of these is glucagon. Other counterreulatory hormones are catecholamines, growth hormone, and cortisol. Prolactin, vasopressin, thyrotropin, and luteinizing hormone are not counterregulatory hormones.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 pointsMore likely to occur with glipizide (Glucotrol) than with metformin (Glucophage) is which of the following?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Metformin is a biguanide used as an oral antidiabetic agent. One of its main advantages over some other oral agents is that it does not cause hypoglycemia. Lactic acidosis, while rare, can occur in patients with renal impairment. In contrast to most other agents for the control of elevated glucose, which often cause weight gain, metformin reduces insulin levels and more frequently has a weight maintaining or even a weight loss effect. Gastrointestinal distress is a common side effect of metformin, particularly early in therapy,
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 pointsA 38 year old woman with symptoms of hyperthyroidism is started on methimazole. On follow up 6 weeks later she mentions low grade fever, arthralgias, and a sore throat. Methimazole is withdrawn immediately. What is the mechanism of action of the medication that should be immediately administered?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Methimazole is an antithyroid drug similar to propylthiouracil (PTU) used to treat hyperthyroidism. Methimazole inhibits the formation of thyroid hormone by interfering with the incorporation of iodine into tyrosyl residues of thyroglobulin (Tg) and by inhibiting the coupling of iodotyrosyl residues to form iodothyronines. These effects are accomplished by inhibiting the enzyme thyroid peroxidase. When Graves disease is treated with methimazole or PTU, the concentration of thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins in the circulation often decreases, suggesting an immunosuppressive effect. The incidence of agranulocytosis is approximately 1:500. It is recommended that patients immediately report the development of sore throat or fever. Discontinuation of methimazole and administration of recombinant human granulocyte colony stimulating factor may increase recovery. Inhibition of the activity of peptic transferase is part of the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol, which is an antibicterial agent. Inhibition of the production of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors is the mechanism of action of warfarin. This agent would be detrimental to the patient.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 pointsA patient has severe arthritis involving the lower back. Before making a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis, he should be questioned about which of the following diseases?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Ten to twenty percent of patients with Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis develop an arthritis that resembles ankylosing spondylitis. Similar arthropathies are seen in psoriasis or Reiter syndrome (arthritis, urethritis, conjunctivitis, and rash following chlamydial infection), as well as related syndromes seen following Shigella, Salmonella, or Yersinia enterocolitis. The other answers are distracters.
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 pointsA girl aged 18 years presents with anxiety and palpitations. Her mother had been treated for an overactive thyroid gland and was now on Thyroxine replacement therapy. On exam she had a pulse of 104/min with a fine tremor and lid lag. Serum free T4 is elevated and TSH is decreased. Serum Antithyroid peroxidase (anti TPO) titre is 40 U/L (<50). The likely cause of her symptoms is
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Although the lead in might make you think that this patient could gain access to thyroxine and so a diagnosis of factitious hyperthyroidism possible, in practice this is extremely unlikely. A strong family history of thyrotoxicosis is typical for Graves´ disease and the absence of goitre with the absence of TPO antibodies (found in 80% Graves cases) again is compatible with a diagnosis of Graves.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 pointsA 44 year old non-smoker presents with polyuria and polydipsia. On exam his BMI is 33.4 kg/m2 and BP is 132/82 mmHg. Labs confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus with a fasting blood glucose concentration of 12.1mmol/L. His HbA1c is 9% (3.8-6.4) and total cholesterol is 5.8 mmol/L. The appropriate initial treatment is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient who has typical type 2 diabetes , which should initially be treated with diet and lifestyle advice, appropriate dietary advice and exercise programme to endeavour to achievce weight loss. He should receive at least three months of this intervention before re-assessing and considering pharmacological intervention if the lifestyle approaches are not succeeding. If this is the case then the drug of choice would be metformin.
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 pointsA 44 year old man is concerned about his risk of developing diabetes. His mother and maternal uncle both have diabetes. He has central obesity with a waist measurement of 110 cm. BP is 130/82 mmHg and BMI is 30.2 kg/m2. Fasting cholesterol is 5.2 mmol/L (<5.2), triglycerides are 1.4 mmol/L (0.45-1.69), HDL cholesterol is 1.1 mmol/L (>1.55) and fasting glucose is 6.2 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). His observation that fulfills the criteria for diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome is
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Explanation:
The metabolic syndrome is becoming hugely important as a cluster of features associated with increased cardiovascular and diabetes risk. The condition is defined by various criteria the latest of which is global definition for the IDF as central obesity (>=94cm for men, >=8 cm for women) plus any two of the following:
- Hypertriglyceridaemia >1.7 mmol/1
- Low HDL concentration <1.03 mmol/l male, <1.29 mmol/l female
- BP > or = 130/85 mmHg, or on treatment for hypertension
- Fasting glucose > or = 5.6 mmol/l, or known to have type 2 diabetes. Thus, in our patient´s case the elevated fasting glucose of 6.3 mmol fulfills this diagnostic criterion. The BMI is not a function of the diagnostic criteria as the waist circumference appears to be a far more powerful predictor of risk.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 pointsA girl aged 16 years has persistent polyuria in excess of 4 litres per day whilst recovering from a head injury she sustained in a road traffic accident. Serum glucose and electrolytes are normal. Which one is the most effective method of confirming the diagnosis?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The history and confirmed polyuria are suspicious of diabetes insipidus which is not uncommon after head injury. This can be confirmed with a water deprivation test where failure of urine concentration would be expected. MRI of the pituitary and hypothalamus may show no abnormality but would be undertaken after the diagnosis of DI is confirmed. Similarly anterior hormone assessment would also be undertaken after the diagnosis is confirmed. A therapeutic trial of DDAVP is only appropriate if the diagnosis of DI is confirmed as primary polydipsia can also be a feature of trauma and in these circumstances DDAVP may precipitate hyponatraemia. Autoantibodies to ADH neurones are irrelevant.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 pointsA 53 year old woman has had type 2 diabetes for past 3 years. She is currently treated with metformin 850 mg BD. On exam her BP is 152/85 mmHg and BMI is 29. HbA1c is 8.1% (<5.5). You are planning to add a Sulphonylurea to her regime. Which features, according to the consensus, is a key advantage or disadvantage of SU therapy?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The question of increased cardiovascular risk for sulfonylureas (SUs) was raised after the university group diabetes programme (UGDP) stud conducted during the 1970s. The consensus authors state however that the question ha: since been answered by the UK prospective diabetes study (UKPDS) and ADVANCE studies, where no cardiovascular risk signal was seen for SUs. Whilst SUs are well known to have a rapid onset of glucose lowering effect, their side effects of hypoglycaemia and weight gain are well own.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 pointsA 54 year old man with BMI of 27 kg/m2 has type 2 diabetes for 5 years and currently takes metformin 1 g twice daily. He takes ramipril and amlodipine for hypertension, and he also has microalbuminuria. His creatinine is 124 µmol/l (60-120), HbA1c is 9.1%, total cholesterol is 5.4 mmol/l (<4.5) and HDL cholesterol is 0.7 mmol/l (>1.0). The appropriate addition to his therapy would be
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Incorrect
Explanation:
This man´s HbA1c is high at 9.1%, he has a low high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, is losing weight, and has a history of microalbuminuria. The two established therapy options at this stage, as stated in the consensus are to either add a sulfonylurea (SU) or insulin. Given his need for greatly improved metabolic control, insulin is the better option here. The guidelines recommend starting with either morning or evening long acting insulin, or with bedtime intermediate acting insulin.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 pointsHead CT of a 64 year old after falling from a ladder shows that he has a 1.3 cm macroadenoma which does not encroach upon the optic chiasm. On recovery he is perfectly well and exam is normal. Thyroid function, testosterone and short synacthen test results are normal. Prolactin level is 550 mU/L. What is the appropriate treatment for him?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Thin man has a co-incidentally detected pituitary macroadenoma. The small elevation in prolactin probably reflects stalk compression and does not indicate that this is a prolactinoma. In macroprolactinomas, the prolactin concentration is greater than 2000 mU/L. In this man´s case, with no visual field defects and the tumour being distant from the chiasm, the most appropriate treatment would be observation with serial scanning to assess for any change in size that would then merit surgical intervention. However, this man who is eupituitary may never encounter any growth in this co-incidentally detected non-functional pituitary tumor.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 pointsA 55 year old man has a 5 year history of increased sweats and change in shoe size. Exam reveals prognathism and macroglossia, with large hands. Blood pressure is 180/94 mmHg but visual field examination is full to confrontation. The test that would be diagnostic is which one of the following?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The diagnosis of acromegaly is confirmed with a failure of GH Suppression during an oral glucose tolerance test. Though a Pituitary adenoma may be present it is not diagnostic of acromegaly.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 pointsA 33 year old female treated with hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening for Addison´s disease, presents with poor compliance. The hydrocortisone upsets her stomach and wants to switch to enteric coated prednisolone. The appropriate corresponding daily dose of prednisone would be
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The approximate equivalent glucocorticoid action of prednisolone to hydrocortisone is 4:1. Hence the equivalent dose for 20 mg of hydrocortisone is roughly 5 mg per day of prednisolone. For other glucocorticoid dose conversions try this online glucocorticoid dose calculator.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 pointsTrue statement regarding primary hyperparathyroidism (HPT) is which one of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Primary HPT can be divided pathologically into adenoma, hyperplasia, and carcinoma. Adenomas clearly are the most prevalent entity representing 80-85% of cases. Hyperplasia is the second most common diagnosis constituting 15% of cases. Carcinoma represents <1% of total cases. Double adenoma has been found in approximately 5% of the time, and complicates the clinical distinction between adenoma and hyperplasia. Histologically, normal parathyroid tissue shows a cell to fat ratio of 1:1. Hypercellular parathyroid tissue is typified by the loss of the normal amount of fat. In primary hyperparathryroidism there is usually hypercalciuria. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may progress to tertiary but primary does not.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statement is correct in the treatment of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
In the treatment of CAH the lowest dose of glucocorticoid that suppresses (not totally) Adrenal androgens, whilst maintaining normal growth and weight gain. Renin activity levels can be used to monitor adequacy of mineralocorticoid and sodium replacement. Hydrocortisone has a relatively short half-life and must therefore be administered twice daily, whilst the preferred mode of glucocorticoid replacement in children is hydrocortisone as it minimises growth suppression. Over treatment with mineralocorticoids leads to hypertension, suppressed plasma rennin activity and possibly growth retardation.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 pointsCorrect statement concerning insulin is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Insulin acts via cell surface receptors. Insulin binding to its receptor results in receptor autophosphorylation on tyrosine residues and the tyrosine phosphorylation of insulin receptor substrates (IRS1, IRS-2 and IRS-3) by the insulin receptor tyrosine kinase. Insulin is synthesised in the beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans not the alpha cells.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following approaches to prednisone withdrawal in patients who have received chronic daily therapy is best?
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Explanation:
Patients who have been on chronic daily oral therapy with prednisone must be tapered slowly, often over many months. Abrupt cessation or very rapid tapering over a short period of time can result in Addisonian crisis. If alternate day use is desired, it must be achieved slowly. An agent such as methotrexate is not substituted for prednisone. It is sometimes given to appropriate patients, such as those with rheumatoid arthritis or lupus, as a remittive agent that has so-called “steroid-sparing” attributes, but it is not used in general as a single-drug therapy, substituting for prednisone.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 pointsA 55 year old diabetic woman has had a lingering sore throat and has lost weight because of pain on swallowing. Her condition would respond well to which of the following?
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Explanation:
A picture such as this in a diabetic individual is very likely to be thrush, i.e., candida, which usually responds to ketoconazole. None of the other choices is appropriate.