GENERAL PRACTITIONER EXAM
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointsA woman at 39 weeks gestation suddenly develops vaginal bleeding and the fetal rate drops to 80 beats/min, and is non-reassuring. What should you perform?
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Explanation:
Vasa previa is an obstetric complication defined as “fetal vessels crossing or running in close proximity to the inner cervical os. These vessels course within the membranes (unsupported by the umbilical cord or placental tissue) and are at risk of rupture when the supporting membranes rupture.
Vasa previa is present when fetal vessels traverse the fetal membranes over the internal cervical os. These vessels may be torn at the time of labor, delivery or when the membranes rupture. It has a high fetal mortality because of the bleeding that follows.
The classic triad is membrane rupture followed immediately by painless vaginal bleeding and fetal bradycardia.
The diagnosis is usually confirmed after delivery on examination of the placenta and fetal membranes. Treatment immediately with an emergency cesarean delivery is usually indicated. -
Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 pointsA 24 year old female is diagnosed as having deep venous thrombosis in her right lower extremity in her first trimester of pregnancy. The most appropriate therapy is
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is clotting of blood in a deep vein of an extremity (usually calf or thigh) or the pelvis. DVT is the primary cause of pulmonary embolism. DVT results from conditions that impair venous return, lead to endothelial injury or dysfunction, or cause hypercoagulability. DVT may be asymptomatic or cause pain and swelling in an extremity.
Diagnosis is by history, physical examination, and duplex ultrasonography, with d-dimer or other testing ax necessary. Treatment is with anticoagulants. In pregnancy, heparin is safe to give. -
Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 pointsA 36 weeks pregnant woman presents with watery vaginal discharge, there is no blood. Mother is afebrile and is not contracting. The most appropriate next step is which of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) may occur at term or earlier (called preterm PROM). Preterm PROM predisposes to preterm delivery. PROM at any time increases risk of infection in the woman (chorioamnionitis), neonate (sepsis), or both; prolapse of the cord; and fetal complications, such as abnormal joint positioning and pulmonary hypoplasia, which may occur with PROM at < 24 weeks. Group B streptococci are the most common cause of infection. Unless complications occur, the only symptom is leakage or a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. Fever, heavy vaginal discharge, abdominal pain, and fetal tachycardia, particularly if out of proportion to maternal temperature, strongly suggest infection. Sterile speculum examination is done to verify PROM, estimate cervical dilation, collect amniotic fluid for culture and fetal maturity tests, and- obtain cervical cultures. Digital pelvic examination, particularly multiple examinations, increases risk of infection and is best avoided. Diagnosis is assumed if amniotic fluid appears to be escaping from the cervix or if the fetal vernix or meconium is visible. Other less accurate indicators include vaginal fluid that ferns when dried on a glass slide or turns Nitrazine paper blue (indicating alkalinity, and hence amniotic fluid, is acidic)
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 pointsA 26 year old woman complains of severe dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia. She states that she has been unsuccessful with her husband. The appropriate next step in management is
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Explanation:
Endometriosis is a noncancerous disorder in which functioning endometrial tissue is implanted outside the uterine cavity. Symptoms depend on location of the implants and may include dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, infertility, dysuria, and pain during defecation. Diagnosis is by biopsy, usually via laparoscopy.
Diagnostic laparoscopy is a surgical procedure used to evaluate intra- abdominal or pelvic pathology (eg, tumor, endometriosis) in patients with acute or chronic abdominal pain and operability in patients with cancer. It is also used for lymphoma staging and liver biopsy. -
Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 pointsA 24 year old Hispanic female at 18 weeks gestation presents with a 4 week history of a now facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. Past medical history and systemic review is normal. On examination symmetric, hyperpigmented patches are present on her cheeks and upper lip. The remainder of her examination is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation:
Melasma or chloasma is common in pregnancy, with approximately 70% of pregnant women affected. It is an acquired hypermelanosis of the face, with symmetric distribution usually on the cheeks, nose, eyebrows, chin, and/or upper lip. The pathogenesis is not known. UV sunscreen is important, as sun exposure worsens the condition. Melasma often resolves or improves post partum. Persistent melasma can be treated with hydroquinone cream, retinoic acid, and/or chemical peels performed postpartum by a dermatologist. The facial rash of lupus is usually more erythematous, and lupus is relatively rare. Pemphigoid gestationis is a rare autoimmune disease with extremely pruritic, bullous skin lesions that usually spare the face. Prurigo gestationis involves pruritic papules on the extensor surfaces and is usually associated with significant excoriation by the uncomfortable patient. -
Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 pointsA G2P1 with history of previous Cesareans for cephalo-pelvic disproportion presents with onset of labor. As the nurses are getting ready to start helping the patient with pushing, a gush of blood is seen coming out from vagina. She is in a tremendous amount of pain. The most likely cause is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Uterine rupture is a concern in women who have had prior cesarean deliveries, and the risk of rupture does rise with the number of previous cesarean deliveries. It is of particular concern if the woman is in labor. A bloody show would not be this dramatic. Placenta previa is implantation of the placenta over or near the internal os of the cervix. Typically, bright red painless vaginal bleeding occurs during late pregnancy.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 pointsA woman at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine fetal demise. She returns to you 5 weeks later and has not had a miscarriage, although she has had some occasional spotting. This patient is at increased risk for
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Explanation:
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) begins with excessive clotting. The excessive clotting is usually stimulated by a substance that enters the blood as part of a disease (such as an infection or certain cancers) or as a complication of childbirth, retention of a dead fetus, or surgery. As the clotting factors and platelets are depleted, excessive bleeding occurs.
DIC may appear to develop suddenly and usually causes bleeding, which may be very severe. If the condition follows surgery or childbirth, bleeding may be uncontrollable. Bleeding may occur at the site of an intravenous injection or in the brain, digestive tract, skin, muscles, or cavities of the body. If DIC develops more slowly, as in people with cancer, then clots in veins are more common than bleeding.
Blood tests may show that the number of platelets in a blood sample has dropped and that the blood is taking a long time to clot. The diagnosis of DIC is confirmed if test results show diminished amounts of clotting factors and large quantities of proteins that are produced when clots are broken up by the body (fibrin degradation products). -
Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 pointsIn the treatment of an ectopic pregnancy with methotrexate the false statement is
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Explanation:
Criteria for methotrexate therapy include hemodynamic stability, confirmation of ectopic pregnancy by ultrasound examination, significant risk associated with general anesthesia, patient compliance, lack of contraindications to methotrexate therapy, small size of ectopic mass (an ectopic mass is less than 3.5 cm in greatest dimension) and lack of fetal cardiac motion.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 pointsA 29 year old gravida 2 para 2 presents with bilateral milky discharge from her breasts. She delivered her last child 2 years ago and breastfed exclusively for 8 months and at night for a few more months. She totally stopped breastfeeding several months ago, but she can still express milk from both breasts daily. She takes no medications, and uses a diaphragm for contraception. Milky discharge is easily expressible from both nipples. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation:
The causes of galactorrhea are multiple, including intraductal papillomatosis, mammary duct ectasia, empty sella syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, hypothyroidism, and illicit drug ingestion. However, bilateral galactorrhea, or milk production, can be physiologic for up to 2 years after breastfeeding an infant. It is also more likely if there continues to be breast stimulation, such as this woman´s daily expression of milk.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 pointsAlpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in increased on a triple screen test when the fetus has which of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
With maternal alpha-fetoprotein elevated levels suggest neural tube defects such as (open spina bifida, meningomyelocele, anencephaly) increased risk of pregnancy complications (eg, intrauterine growth restriction, abruptio placentae), or, occasionally, twins or other- multifetal pregnancy. Closed spina bifida is usually not detected. A meningomyelocele is a defect that is large enough to allow meninges and a portion of spinal cord to protrude through the defect. Such defects can be suggested by an elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 pointsA couple is unable to conceive after 1 year. Which is correct regarding infertility statistics?
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Explanation:
Infertility is the inability of a couple to achieve a pregnancy after repeated intercourse without contraception for l year.
Infertility affects about one of five couples in the Canada. It is becoming increasingly common because people are waiting longer to marry and to-have a child. Nevertheless, up to 60% of the couples who have not conceived after a year of trying to conceive eventually, with or without treatment. The goal of treatment is to reduce the time needed to conceive or to provide couples who right not otherwise conceive the opportunity to do so. Before treatment is begun, counseling that provides information about the treatment process (including its .duration) and the chances of success is beneficial.
The cause of infertility may be due to problems in the man, the woman, or both. Problems with sperm, ovulation, or the fallopian tubes each account for almost one third of infertility cases. In a small percentage of cases, infertility is caused by problems with mucus in the cervix or by unidentified factors. Thus, the diagnosis of infertility problems requires a thorough assessment of both partners. -
Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 pointsYou are attending the delivery of a 33 year old gravida 2 para 1 with no prenatal complications who entered spontaneous labor at full term several hours ago. All fetal heart tones have been reassuring. The head delivers in the occiput anterior position over a posterior midline episiotomy without problems. However, the delivery stalls with the infant´s chin pressing against the perineum, when there is a contraction or the mother attempts to push, the head descends slightly and then returns to the same position. Which one of the following should you do first to facilitate delivery after you call for additional assistance?
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Explanation:
The scenario described represents a case of shoulder dystocia. This complication cannot be reliably predicted prior to delivery, and all physicians performing deliveries must be familiar with its presentation and management. Overly vigorous traction of the infant´s head or neck in this situation may cause serious damage to the infant. Having an assistant apply moderate suprapubic pressure with gentle downward traction of the fetal head is permissible. If this does not result in delivery of the shoulders, the McRoberts maneuver has been universally recognized as a safe and effective procedure for allowing the infant´s anterior shoulder to be freed. Other maneuvers that are more invasive and carry higher risks should be used only if the above maneuvers are ineffective. Applying fundal pressure without other maneuvers has been shown to cause a 77% complication rate and should be avoided.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 pointsA 62 year old woman presents with 5×5 cm adnexal mass. Following investigations she is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. The most appropriate management is
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Explanation:
Ovarian cancer is often fatal because it is usually advanced when diagnosed. Symptoms are usually absent in early stage and nonspecific in advanced stage. Evaluation usually includes ultrasonography, CT or MRI, and measurement of tumor markers (eg, cancer antigen 125).
Diagnosis is by histologic analysis. Staging is surgical.
Treatment requires hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, excision of as much involved tissue as possible, and, unless cancer is localized, chemotherapy. -
Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 pointsA 36 year old gravida 6 para 5 is given Oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce delivery at 41 weeks gestation. Her prenatal course is significant for chronic hypertension. She delivers a 4020-g (8 lb 14 oz) baby. Following delivery of the placenta, she begins to have excessive vaginal bleeding. What should be the initial management?
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Explanation:
The incidence of postpartum hemorrhage is 5%-8%. Causes include uterine atony, lacerations, retained placental products, and defects of coagulation. Uterine atony is the most likely cause of hemorrhage in this patient with multiple risk factors, including grand multiparity, a large fetus (uterine dissension), and oxytocin induction. The initial step in management of postpartum hemorrhage should be manual uterine exploration followed by bimanual massage and compression of the uterus. This maneuver may need to be performed for upwards of 30 minutes. Intravenous oxytocin should also be infused simultaneously. Uterine curettage may be performed to attempt to remove retained placental products, however, it carries a significant risk of uterine perforation and should be delayed unless bleeding cannot be controlled by other means. Methergine is useful for postpartum hemorrhage but is contraindicated in this patient with hypertension. Terbutaline is a tocolytic and is not used for treatment of hemorrhage. Prostaglandin F2alpha is an effective treatment for postpartum hemorrhage, but should be reserved for use when uterine massage fails. -
Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is false regarding oral contraceptive pills?
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Explanation:
Oral contraceptive pills are widely used and are generally safe and effective for many women. The choice of pill formulation is influenced by clinical considerations. By choosing appropriately from the available pill formulations, physicians can minimize negative side effects and maximize noncontraceptive benefits for their patients. Additional monitoring and follow-up are necessary in special populations, such as women over 35 years of age, smokers, perimenopausal women and adolescents. Third-generation progestins are additional options for achieving noncontraceptive benefits, but their use has raised new questions about thrombogenesis. Whereas only one of 1,000 women who take oral contraceptive pills “perfectly” becomes pregnant within a year, 50 of 1,000 women who take the pills “typically” become pregnant within one year.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 pointsAt which of the following times the probability of pregnancy after unprotected intercourse is the highest?
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Explanation:
There is a 30% probability of pregnancy resulting from unprotected intercourse 1 or 2 days before ovulation, 15% 3 days before, 12% the day of ovulation, and essentially 0% 1-2 days after ovulation. Knowing the time of ovulation therefore has implications not only for natural family planning, but also for decisions regarding postcoital contraception. -
Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 pointsA 28 year old woman gives birth to a full term healthy baby. Mother has tested positive for hepatitis HBe antigen and HBs antigen two weeks before delivery. What would you recommended for managing the newborn?
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Explanation:
Newborns who are exposed to hepatitis B have more than a 90% chance of becoming chronically infected. This means the virus stays in their blood and liver for possibly a lifetime. They can pass the virus on to others. They will also live with a greater chance of developing liver failure or liver cancer later in life.
It is most important that the newborn receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine in the delivery room. If possible, also give the hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG), which is another medication that helps the vaccine to work even more successfully. -
Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statements is true regarding pregnancy in women with systemic lupus erythematosus?
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Explanation:
The presence of active SLE, especially involving the kidneys, is a poor prognostic factor for pregnancy. Such women tend to either not carry the fetus to term or to have severe health complications themselves. Women with SLE are no more infertile than the general population. Pregnancy is relatively safe in patients with inactive SLE. Pregnancy in lupus is considered “high risk”. Pregnant women with lupus should have amniocentesis performed for the same reasons as other women. -
Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 pointsMaternal intravenous drug addiction is associated with which of the following?
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Explanation:
Infants born to intravenous drug addicts may be addicted to the drug themselves and may go through withdrawal if not properly managed. Cardiac valvular lesions are not associated with maternal drug abuse. Babies born to these mothers tend to have low birth weights. Kernicterus and renal anomalies also are not associated with maternal drug abuse.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 pointsWhat is the most likely site for an ectopic pregnancy?
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Explanation:
The fallopian tube is the site of approximately 95% of all ectopic pregnancies. A pregnancy in the uterus is normal, not ectopic. The other sites are much less common for an ectopic pregnancy.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 pointsA 36 year old female presents at 16 weeks gestation. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date. This is her first pregnancy. She has been healthy and does not take any medicines. On exam, her BP is 160/110 mm Hg. Urinalysis reveals 3+ proteinuria. What is the likely cause of these findings?
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Explanation:
Although this patient is presenting with classic signs of preeclampsia (high blood pressure and proteinuria), one of the major diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia is onset after 20 weeks of gestation. Onset of this condition before the 20th week of pregnancy is suggestive of a hydatidiform mole, a form of gestational trophoblastic disease characterized by: excessive uterine enlargement (“size greater than dates”); vaginal bleeding; passage of edematous, soft, grapelike tissue; and significantly elevated beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (beta-hCG). The diagnosis is strongly suggested by ultrasound, but definitive diagnosis requires histopathologic examination. Anencephaly may cause polyhydramnios that can be associated with the onset of preeclampsia, but not until the sixth month of pregnancy. Maternal renal disease should not particularly be exacerbated at this stage of the pregnancy. Neural tube defect may also lead to polyhydramnios and cause preeclampsia. Twin gestation will increase the risk of preeclampsia but not until the sixth month of pregnancy.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 pointsA 32-year-old woman comes to the hospital for an elective repeat cesarean delivery. Previously, she has had 2 cesarean deliveries, first for non-reassuring fetal heart rate and second when she preferred cesarean over vaginal delivery. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated except that she has mitral valve prolapse. Which of the following is the correct management of this patient?
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Explanation:
Mitral valve prolapse affects approximately 5% of women of childbearing age. Consequently, the issue of mitral valve prolapse and the need for antibiotics comes up quite often in obstetrics, particularly with delivery (either vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery). Bacterial endocarditis is a life-threatening infection that can develop in patients with structural cardiac disease who are exposed to bacteremia.
The risk for any given procedure depends upon the nature of the procedure itself and on the nature of the cardiac lesion. Periodically, the American Heart Association publishes guidelines for the prevention of bacterial endocarditis. According to the American Heart Association guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary for cesarean delivery or normal vaginal delivery. The possible exception to this is for patients with “high risk” cardiac conditions, which includes women with a history of endocarditis or who have prosthetic heart valves, complex cyanotic congenital heart disease, or surgically corrected systemic pulmonary shunts. Mitral valve prolapse, if associated with mitral regurgitation (demonstrated by Doppler or a murmur), is considered a moderate risk condition and, therefore, antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary. This patient, therefore, does not require antibiotics prior to, during, or after her cesarean delivery. To administer intravenous antibiotics 30 minutes prior to the procedure (choice A), immediately after the procedure (choice B), 24 hours after the procedure (choice C), or to administer oral antibiotics 6 hours after the procedure (choice D) would all be unnecessary. As explained above, the reason for administering antibiotics to women with structural cardiac disease is to prevent bacterial endocarditis. Bacterial endocarditis is a potentially fatal condition.
However, there are different degrees of structural cardiac disease. Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation is considered to be a moderate risk condition. The American Heart Association does not recommend endocarditis prophylaxis for women with moderate risk conditions undergoing vaginal or cesarean delivery.
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 pointsA 22-year-old woman has missed her period. She takes thyroxine for hypothyroidism, Coumadin as she has an artificial heart valve and sherecently started tetracycline for acne. She does not think that she is pregnant because sheis currently on OCP, but, if pregnant, she would keep the pregnancy.Urine hCG is positive. Which of the following medications can she continue?A 22-year-old woman has missed her period. She takes thyroxine for hypothyroidism, Coumadin as she has an artificial heart valve and sherecently started tetracycline for acne. She does not think that she is pregnant because sheis currently on OCP, but, if pregnant, she would keep the pregnancy.Urine hCG is positive. Which of the following medications can she continue?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Hypothyroidism is associated with several complications regarding fertility and pregnancy. Women with overt hypothyroidism have increased rates of infertility. Women with uncorrected hypothyroidism that do become pregnant are at increased risk of having stillborn and low-birth-weight infants.
Various studies have also shown that rates of preeclampsia, placental abruption, and heart failure may be increased in pregnant patients with hypothyroidism. Pregnancy often leads to an increased requirement for thyroid hormone replacement (thyroxine) as the pregnancy progresses. Pregnant women with hypothyroidism on thyroxine should have their thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level checked periodically to determine if the drug dosage is adequate. This patient, with her history of hypothyroidism, should continue her thyroxine during the pregnancy.
Coumadin (choice A) is contraindicated during pregnancy, as it is a known cause of birth defects. This patient needs anticoagulation, however, and should be placed on heparin, which does not cross the placenta. It is possible to become pregnant while taking the oral contraceptive pill (choice B), as the pill has a small rate of failure. There is no known association between first trimester exposure and birth defects. Now that the patient has become pregnant, however, she should stop taking the OCP. Tetracycline (choice C) is used to treat some forms of acne and, therefore, some women will become pregnant while on the medication. Its use is contraindicated during pregnancy, however, because it is associated with fetal teeth and bone malformations. To state that the patient should discontinue all medications (choice E) is absolutely incorrect. While some medications are contraindicated during pregnancy, many are necessary and should be continued.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 pointsA 24-year-old primigravida in spontaneous labour at term has a prolapsed pulsating cord. She is rushed to theatre for a category I Caesarean section. Her body mass index is 34, and there is difficulty in intubation. You will proceed by:
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Explanation:
This answer is C. Caesarean section under gas induction is an option for category I Caesarean sections. Obese pregnant women should ideally receive antenatal anesthetic input.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 pointsA 34-year-old woman had a normal delivery at 36 weeks´ gestation. She developed chickenpox on the second postnatal day. The baby is healthy without any obvious lesions. The blood test shows mild thrombocytopenia with a normal haemoglobin level. Next step is:
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Explanation:
This answer is E. Neonatal zoster immunoglobulin can be given if maternal infection occurs 5 days before and 2 days after delivery. Active immunization/vaccination is not required here. Oral acyclovir is not indicated. -
Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 pointsA 20-year-old woman with HIV for 2 years has a dry cough and breathlessness. She also discloses that she is about 28 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy. A chest X-ray shows bilateral perihilar interstitial shadows. Next step is:
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Explanation:
This answer is A. Inpatient care is needed for patients with pneumonia. Option E helps decrease transmission of HIV to neonate. HAART therapy is not for pneumonia.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 pointsA 28-year-old primigravida presents with lower abdominal pain at 14 weeks´ gestation. There is no history of vaginal bleeding or dysuria. She has had an episode of vomiting in the morning. Temperature = 37.8°C. There is tenderness in her lower abdomen, particularly the right lower quadrant. Cervix is closed with no bleeding. Haemoglobin=11.7 gm/dl, TLC=17.0 cells/mm3, CRP=100 units, AST=30 IU, GGT=17 IU, ALP=150 IU, bilirubin 22 mg/dl, amylase=50 IU and serum albumin=25 g/dl. USS fails to show any ovarian or uterine mass. Diagnosis is:
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Explanation:
This answer is A. Appendicitis commonly presents in the early second trimester in young mothers. The classical signs might be absent in pregnancy. Abruption will produce anemia + vaginal bleeding. The scenario does not give any history of fibroids or any abdominal mass which negates the option of Red degeneration.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 pointsA 32-week primigravid lady in labour has irregular tightenings. She denies any history of bleeding per vaginam or draining. Presentation is cephalic and the cervix is posterior and closed. Urine analysis is negative. The woman is then given a tocolytic, after which she develops a severe headache, hypotension and flushing. What is the drug used?
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Explanation:
This answer is A. Nifedipine is associated with such side-effects. Labetalol and Methyldopa does not give these effects. Oxytocin is not a tocolytic.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 pointsA 23-year-old woman presents at the booking clinic. She is 7 weeks post-partum after her first pregnancy and has been referred by the community midwife for consultant care. She feels well in herself and says that a specific voice has been speaking to her every morning instructing her to do things. She is not on any medication. Diagnosis is: Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This answer is A. Auditory hallucinations, thought withdrawal, insertion and interruption thought broadcasting, delusional perception and feelings or actions experienced as made or influenced by external agents are considered as first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia. Post-traumatic stress disorder presents as difficulties sleeping, is overactive and expresses feelings of excitement. Depression presents with symptoms of confusion, restless and expressing thoughts of self-harm.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 pointsA 32-year-old woman is admitted at 40 weeks´ gestation from home in labour. It was noted on a 28-week scan that the fetus was in the breech presentation. What is the percentage of breech presentations overall?
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Explanation:
This answer is C. Percentage of breech presentations overall is 3-4 %.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is true regarding smoking in pregnancy?
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Explanation:
Smoking reduces birth weight which may be of critical importance if the baby is born pre-term.
On average, the babies of smokers weigh 170g less than non-smokers, but the reduction in birth weight is related to the number of cigarettes smoked per day.
Smoking is also associated with an increased risk of miscarriage and still birth. The infant has a greater risk of sudden infant death syndrome.
There is some evidence that maternal smoking may adversely affect ovarian function in female children.
No dysmorphic syndrome has yet been described. -
Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 pointsEntonox for labour analgesia
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Explanation:
Entonox is a gaseous mixture of nitrous oxide and oxygen and has been has been used since the 1960´s. It is twice as effective as pethidine at providing labour analgesia, but inhalation should begin as soon as the uterine contraction is felt, became it takes forty five seconds before the maximum analgesic effect is achieved.
Low dose isoflurane and sevoflurane have been given in addition to entonox which has demonstrated an increased analgesic efficacy over entonox alone. Combining the analgesic effects of entonox with other analgesics agents provides superior analgesia to using entonox alone. -
Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 pointsMaternal cocaine use in pregnancy has the following recognized effects:
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Explanation:
Cocaine abuse: causes IUGR through uterine vessel vasoconstriction, resulting in decreased uterine blood flow, fetal hypoxia and increased fetal blood pressure. Fetal vasospasm can also occur and mat cause digit loss or cerebral infarction. There is an increased incidence of early pregnancy loss, plus placenta abruption and preterm labour. Unlike opiates, cocaine is not usually associated with neonatal withdrawal.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 pointsRegarding pre-implantation genetic diagnosis?
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Explanation:
Pre-implantation genetic screening is increasingly used in embryos produced by IVF prior to implantation. There are many criteria employed but in particular it is used for the detection of X-linked disorders, single gene defects or chromosomal abnormalities. Primarily it is used in women above 35 years of age, when semen has been obtained using ICSI arm when there are particular genetic disorders.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 pointsA 24 year old female is diagnosed as having deep venous thrombosis in her right lower extremity in her first trimester of pregnancy. The most appropriate therapy is
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Explanation:
Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is clotting of blood in a deep vein of an extremity (usually calf or thigh) or the pelvis. DVT is the primary cause of pulmonary embolism. DVT results from conditions that impair venous return, lead to endothelial injury or dysfunction, or cause hypercoagulability. DVT may be asymptomatic or cause pain and swelling in an extremity.
Diagnosis is by history, physical examination, and duplex ultrasonography, with d-dimer or other testing ax necessary. Treatment is with anticoagulants. In pregnancy, heparin is safe to give. -
Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 pointsWhich intravenous antibiotic regimen is most appropriate for the treatment of postpartum endometritis?
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Explanation:
The usual recommendation is to treat postpartum endometritis with clindamycin and gentamicin. This combination covers anaerobes, group B. Streptococcus, and gram-negative organism. Extended-spectrum cephalosporins or imipenem-cilastatin or ampicillin-sulbactam are frequently used; however, the clindamycin / gentamicin regimen remains the gold standard when endometriosis is suspected.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 pointsA 38 year old gravida 3 para 2 at 33 weeks gestation complains of onset of brisk vaginal bleeding. The uterus is nontender and 32 cm above the symphysis on examination. Pelvic examination reveals the presence of a large amount of bright red vaginal blood. The above mentioned presentation is most consistent with which of the following?
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Explanation:
The classical clinical presentation of placenta previa is painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This diagnosis must be considered in all patients beyond 24 weeks gestation who present with bleeding. Threatened abortion is unlikely at this stage of pregnancy and hemorrhagic cystitis is not accompanied by brisk bleeding. Abruption of the placenta is the most common cause of intrapartum fetal death but is associated not only with brisk vaginal bleeding, but also with uterine tenderness that may be marked. Clinical signs of chorioamnionitis include purulent vaginal discharge, fever, tachycardia, and uterine tenderness.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 points26 year old female has a positive pregnancy test. She present with 2 day history vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound shows a 3 cm mass in the left adnexal and an empty uterus. Her symptoms and signs of pregnancy have disappeared and her cervix is closed. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
The following table explains the different types of abortions that may occur during a pregnancy:
Type of abortion Vaginal bleeding Cervical dilation Passage of products of conception Threatened Y N N Inevitable Y Y N Incomplete Y Y Y Complete Y Y or N Y The above patient most likely has had a complete abortion.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 pointsA 33 year old G5P4 presents with an 8 week history of amenorrhea and suggestive symptoms of pregnancy. Physical examination reveals an irregular, enlarged uterus of 16 weeks size. Ultrasound reveals the presence of an 8 week viable pregnancy and a multiple fibroid uterus. What is the correct management for this patient?
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Explanation:
Uterine fibroids are benign uterine tumors of smooth muscle origin. Fibroids-frequently cause abnormal vaginal bleeding (eg, menorrhagia, menometrorrhagia), pelvic pain and pressure, urinary and intestinal symptoms, and pregnancy complications. Diagnosis is by pelvic examination and imaging. Treatment of symptomatic patients depends on the patient´s desire for fertility and desire to keep her uterus and may include oral contraceptives, brief presurgical gonadotropin releasing hormone therapy to shrink fibroids, and more definitive surgical procedures (eg, myomectomy, hysterectomy, endometrial ablation).
Some pregnant women will have fibroids, some of which occasionally interfere with the normal progress of a pregnancy. Though fibroids tend to grow in size during pregnancy, it is unlikely that they will cause any symptoms. Some pregnant women do experience minor symptoms, particularly pelvic pain and light spotting. The majority of fibroids are of no significance and have no effect upon a woman´s fertility, her pregnancy or delivery. Some, however, impinge upon or distort the actual cavity of the uterus and may causes complications in pregnancy, as may a very large fibroid which by virtue of its size distorts the uterus and the other pelvic organs. -
Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 pointsThe hormone that is responsible for the proliferation of the milk ducts during pregnancy is
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Explanation:
In some target tissues, the main effect of estrogen is to cause cells to grow and divide, a process called cell proliferation.
In breast tissue, for example, estrogen triggers the proliferation of cells lining the milk glands, thereby preparing the breast to produce milk if the woman should become pregnant. Estrogen also promotes proliferation of the cells that form the inner lining, or endometrium, of the uterus, thereby preparing the uterus for possible implantation of an embryo. During a normal menstrual cycle, estrogen levels fall dramatically at the end of each cycle if pregnancy does not occur. As a result, the endometrium disintegrates and is shed from the uterus and vagina in a bleeding process called menstruation. -
Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 pointsFalse regarding IUGR (Intrauterine Growth Retardation) is
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Explanation:
trauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is a term used to describe a condition in which the fetus is smaller than expected for the number of weeks of pregnancy. Another term for IUGR is fetal growth restriction.
Newborn babies with IUGR are often described as small for gestational age (SGA). A fetus with IUGR often has an estimated fetal weight less than the 10th percentile. Maternal factors associated with IUGR are high blood pressure, chronic kidney disease, advanced diabetes, heart or respiratory disease, malnutrition, anemia, infection, substance abuse (alcohol, drugs) and cigarette smoking. Factors involving the uterus and placenta are decreased blood flow in the uterus and placenta, placental abruption (placenta detaches from the uterus), placenta previa (placenta attaches low in the uterus) and infection in the tissues around the fetus. Factors related to the developing baby (fetus) are multiple gestation (twins, triplets, etc.), infection, birth defects and chromosomal abnormality. -
Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 pointsA 26 year old woman develops a urinary tract infection in her first trimester of pregnancy. The best antibiotic prescribed in this situation would be
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Explanation:
The antibiotics recommended for UTI in pregnant woman are nitrofurantoin and cephalosporins. These antibiotics are very effective in the treatment of pregnant woman against urinary tract infection.
Pregnant woman with recurrent urinary tract infection can also be treated with the antibiotic nitrofurantoin. Normally nitrofurantoin and cephalexin are very effective in the treatment of urinary tract infection in pregnant woman.
Certain antibiotics such as tetracycline, doxycycline and bactrim are not safe to give during a pregnancy because of their teratogenic side effects. -
Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 pointsThe easiest and most reliable way of detecting a retained succenturiate placental lobe is
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Explanation:
The maternal surface of the placenta should be inspected to be certain that all cotyledons are present. Then the fetal membranes should be inspected past the edges of the placenta. Large vessels beyond these edges indicate the possibility that an entire placental lobe (e.g., succenturiate or accessory lobe) may have been retained. This can be detected by inspection of the fetal side of the placenta.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 pointsWhen a mother nurses her child the time of reappearance of her menses is uncertain but usually occurs after her delivery by
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Explanation:
A general rule of thumb is that it takes about 3 months after delivery or after discontinuance of breast feeding for menses to get back to their normal pattern. That pattern can be different after a delivery. Restoration of normal menses can be interfered with by injectable contraceptives stress/depression or sometimes even sleep deprivation with a new baby.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 pointsTrue statement regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation is
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Explanation:
Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many, factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the ´perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 pointsA full-term infant, born 72 hours ago, is noted to be jaundiced. The pregnancy was uneventful and the delivery uncomplicated. The mother has type A-positive blood and the child has type O-positive. The child is breastfed and has lost 9 ounces from a birth weight of 8 lb. He is feeding for 20 minutes every 4 hours and has normal examination except for being icteric. Laboratory evaluation reveals a total serum bilirubin level of 15 mg/dL (N 1.4-8.7), with a conjugated bilirubin level of 1.0 mg/dL. His hemoglobin level is 17.8 g/dL (N 13.4-19.8), his hematocrit is 54% (N 41-65), and his reticulocyte count is 3% (N 3-7). What would be the appropriate management?
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Explanation:
Hyperbilirubinemia can occur in up to 60% of term newborns during the first week of life. Early guidelines on management of elevated bilirubin were based on studies of bilirubin toxicity in infants who had hemolytic disease. Current recommendations now support the use of less intensive therapy in term newborns with jaundice who are otherwise healthy. Phototherapy should be initiated when the bilirubin level is above 15 mg/dL for infants at age 29-48 hours old, at 18 mg/dL for infants 49-72, and at 20 mg/dL in infants older than 72 hours. Generally, this problem is not considered pathologic unless it presents during the first hours after birth and the total serum bilirubin rises by more than 5mg dL/day or is higher than 17 mg/dL, or if the infant has signs or symptoms suggestive of a serious underlying illness such as sepsis. Fortunately, very few term newborns with jaundice have serious underlying pathology.
Physiologic jaundice follows a pattern, with the bilirubin level peaking on the third or fourth day of life and then declining over the first week after birth. Infants with multiple risk factors may develop an exaggerated form of physiologic jaundice, with the total bilirubin level rising as high as 17 mg/dL. Breastfed infants are at an increased risk for exaggerated physiologic jaundice because of relative caloric, deprivation in the first few days of life. Compared with formula-fed infants, those who are breastfed are six times more likely to experience moderate jaundice, with the bilirubin rising above 12 mg/dL. For breastfed newborns who have an early onset of hyperbilirubinemia, the frequency of feeding should be increased to more than 10 times per day. If the newborn has a decrease in weight gain, delayed stooling, and continued poor intake, then formula supplementation may be necessary. Breastfeeding should be continued to maintain breast milk production. Supplemental water or dextrose and water should not be given, as thin can decrease breast milk production and may place the infant at risk for iatrogenic hyponatremia. -
Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 pointsA third year female medical student is assigned to an obstetrics ward as a part of a required clerkship rotation. The attending physician on the ward instructs the student to collect a standard medical history from a patient who has just been admitted for induced delivery. As the student enters the patient´s room, she is startled to discover that the patient is a professor who had lectured about pharmacology in her medical school. The professor recognized the student as well. When the student explains the purpose of her visit, the patient indicates that she would be uncomfortable given that type of personal information to a student whom she knew from another context. The medical student excuses herself, leaves the patient´s room, and reports the patient´s concern to the attending physician. In reply the attending physician tells the student. “Oh, get over it! Be a professional. Go back in and get the information like I told you.” What would be the student´s best course of action at this point?
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Explanation:
The patient´s wishes and comfort come first, and override the directive from the attending physician. The student, as a doctor in training should be an advocate for the patient, and respect the patient´s wishes regarding to whom she feels comfortable giving personal information. Remember, the patient is number one, and the patient´s wishes should be of primary concern. Going behind the back of the attending physician (choice A) is deceitful and unprofessional. The student should have the courage of her convictions and maintain what she feels is right even to someone above her in the medical hierarchy.
The aim here is not to convince the patient, but to show respect for the patient´s wishes. Trying to shame, coerce, or bully the professor into acquiescence (choice B) is clearly inappropriate. The student must exercise her own professional judgment and make these decisions on her own. Bringing in the Dean´s Office (choice C) takes time and escalates the situation. The attending physician may well be embarrassed and resentful of the intrusion. If the student feels the attending instructions are wrong she must say so directly and stand her ground. Choice E directly contradicts the patient´s stated wishes, and so is wrong. The patient´s concern was not about confidentiality (choice F) but about allowing someone whom she had taught as a student to deal with her in the role of the physician. Her wishes and her own personal comfort should be respected. If you don´t think it is right then don´t do it. Doing the behavior under protest (choice C) may make the student feel nobler but still violates the patient´s wishes. -
Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 pointsA 27 year old woman comes to her obstetrician´s office because she has not had her menses for 3 months. Her physician performs urine pregnancy test which is positive. The physician performs an ultrasound examination in the office, which shows a developing fetus with a fluid filled sac at the base of the fetus spine that connects to the spinal canal and apparently contains part of the spinal cord. The medication that would exacerbate the dietary deficiency responsible for this fetal anomaly is
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Explanation:
The correct; answer is B. The lesion is a neural tube defect, probably a meningomyelocele, in which both meninges and spinal cord herniate through a bony vertebral detect. These detects most commonly occur in the lumbosacral region, typically resulting in motor and sensory deficits in the lower extremities and dysfunction in the bowel and bladder. This condition is now known to be associated with low maternal folate during the first 3 to 4 weeks of pregnancy, a time when many women may be unaware of their pregnancy. It is now recommended that all women of childbearing age consume at least 400 µg of folic acid daily. Anticonvulsants, such as phenytoin, can impair the absorption of folate as well as increase the rate of folate metabolism. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy but are not involved in folate metabolism. Lithium can cross the placenta, resulting in toxicity to the fetus, but does not affect folate levels. Sulpha antimicrobials inhibit folate synthesis in bacteria. However, since humans do not synthesize folate but obtain it from their diets, this medication will not affect dietary folate. Vitamin B12 is often deficient in patients who are also folate deficient. However, supplements of vitamin B12 have no effect on folate levels.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 pointsA 25 year old married woman is considering becoming pregnant. She visits her gynecologist and requests nutrition counseling prior to conception. Which of the following is FALSE regarding nutrition before pregnancy?
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Explanation:
Hypervitaminosis A is associated with craniofacial abnormalities, central nervous system defects, and hearing defects. Excess amounts are considered over 10,000 IU per day; sources include squash, carrots, apricots, and dark-green leafy vegetables. Folate intake of 0.4 mg per day is recommended by the CDC for pregnant women before and during pregnancy to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects in the fetus. This defect can occur during the first two weeks of pregnancy, usually before the pregnancy is recognized. Calcium intake during pregnancy has been shown to reduce the incidence of pregnancy induced hypertension and preeclampsia. Zinc is present in high levels in seafood, milk, nuts, and meat. Zinc supplementation is associated with a normal infant birth weight and development. A zinc deficient diet is associated with central nervous system malformations. Zinc deficiency is rare during pregnancy, except among women who exhibit pica, particularly in the form of geophagia. Pregnant women usually require an iron supplement to prevent anemia.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 pointsCardiac condition that should be strongly discouraged from becoming pregnant is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Maternal pulmonary hypertension is associated with a significant increase in both maternal and fetal mortality. In most patients, the other cardiac conditions are not considered contraindications to pregnancy.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 pointsA 32-year-old woman comes to the hospital for an elective repeat cesarean delivery. Previously, she has had 2 cesarean deliveries, first for non-reassuring fetal heart rate and second when she preferred cesarean over vaginal delivery. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated except that she has mitral valve prolapse. Which of the following is the correct management of this patient?
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Explanation:
Mitral valve prolapse affects approximately 5% of women of childbearing age. Consequently, the issue of mitral valve prolapse and the need for antibiotics comes up quite often in obstetrics, particularly with delivery (either vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery). Bacterial endocarditis is a life-threatening infection that can develop in patients with structural cardiac disease who are exposed to bacteremia.
The risk for any given procedure depends upon the nature of the procedure itself and on the nature of the cardiac lesion. Periodically, the American Heart Association publishes guidelines for the prevention of bacterial endocarditis. According to the American Heart Association guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary for cesarean delivery or normal vaginal delivery. The possible exception to this is for patients with “high risk” cardiac conditions, which includes women with a history of endocarditis or who have prosthetic heart valves, complex cyanotic congenital heart disease, or surgically corrected systemic pulmonary shunts. Mitral valve prolapse, if associated with mitral regurgitation (demonstrated by Doppler or a murmur), is considered a moderate risk condition and, therefore, antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary. This patient, therefore, does not require antibiotics prior to, during, or after her cesarean delivery. To administer intravenous antibiotics 30 minutes prior to the procedure (choice A), immediately after the procedure (choice B), 24 hours after the procedure (choice C), or to administer oral antibiotics 6 hours after the procedure (choice D) would all be unnecessary. As explained above, the reason for administering antibiotics to women with structural cardiac disease is to prevent bacterial endocarditis. Bacterial endocarditis is a potentially fatal condition.
However, there are different degrees of structural cardiac disease. Mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation is considered to be a moderate risk condition. The American Heart Association does not recommend endocarditis prophylaxis for women with moderate risk conditions undergoing vaginal or cesarean delivery. -
Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 pointsA 28-year-old term primigravid is in labor. Prenatally, she was both Rh negative and antibody negative. Her husband is Rh positive. She delivers a 3600-g boy via a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery. Placenta requires manual removal. To determine the correct amount of RhoGAM (anti-D immune globulin) that should be given, which of the following is the most appropriate laboratory test to send?
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Explanation:
Women who are Rh negative are at risk for developing Rh isoimmunization. Rh isoimmunization occurs when an Rh-negative mother becomes exposed to the Rh antigen on the red blood cells of an Rh-positive fetus. This exposure may lead the mother´s immune system to become sensitized to the Rh antigen such that in a future pregnancy with an Rh-positive fetus, the mother´s immune system may “attack” the Rh antigen on the fetal red blood cells. This immune response may lead to the development of fetal anemia, hydrops, and death. To prevent Rh isoimmunization from occurring, Rh-negative women who are not Rh alloimmunized should receive RhoGAM (anti-D immune globulin) at 28 weeks´ gestation, within 72 hours after the birth of an Rh-positive infant, after a spontaneous abortion, or after invasive procedures such as amniocentesis. RhoGAM should also be strongly considered in cases of threatened abortion, antenatal bleeding, external cephalic version, or abdominal trauma. The amount that is usually given after the delivery of an Rh-positive fetus is 300 μg. This amount is sufficient to cover a fetal to maternal hemorrhage of 30 mL (or 15 mL of fetal cells). However, some women will have a fetal to maternal hemorrhage that is in excess of this 30 mL-especially in cases such as manual removal of the placenta (like this patient had) or placental abruption. To determine the amount of fetal to maternal hemorrhage that occurred, it is necessary to perform a Kleihauer-Betke test. This acid-dilution procedure allows fetal red blood cells to be identified and counted. Knowing the amount of fetal to maternal hemorrhage that took place allows the correct amount of RhoGAM to be given. A complete blood count (choice A) will demonstrate the amount of maternal hemorrhage, but not the amount of fetal to maternal hemorrhage. Liver function tests (choice C), prothrombin time (choice D), and serum potassium (choice E) do not allow for the determination of the amount of fetal to maternal hemorrhage. The scenario already mentions that she is antibody -ve for Rh antigens (choice F).
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 pointsA 24-year-old woman had her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and a home urine pregnancy test was positive. She complains of increased fatigue and mild nausea and vomiting. Examination shows both a systolic and a diastolic cardiac murmur. The uterus is 8 weeks´ sized and nontender. What is most suggestive of structural heart disease in this woman?
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Explanation:
Pregnancy brings about numerous, normal physiologic changes in the pregnant woman. Some of the most obvious changes are those found in the cardiovascular system. For example, cardiac output rises markedly in pregnancy with increases up to 50% over nonpregnant levels.
Cardiac murmurs are common in pregnancy with as many as 90% of all pregnant women having some degree of a systolic murmur. Diastolic murmurs are different, however. The finding of a diastolic murmur in a pregnant woman must be thoroughly evaluated as this type of murmur is often related to important cardiac disease. For example, mitral stenosis, the most common rheumatic valvular lesion in pregnancy, is characterized by a rumbling diastolic murmur. Therefore, patients with diastolic murmurs should have an echocardiograph and possible referral to a cardiologist for further evaluation.
An enlarged uterus (choice B) is a normal finding in a pregnant woman. It is important to examine the uterus for size at the first prenatal visit to ensure that the size correlates to the patient´s dating by last menstrual period. If there is a discrepancy, then the patient should be sent for an ultrasound to obtain correct dating, which is essential for the management of the pregnancy. Fatigue (choice C) and nausea and vomiting (choice D) are very common findings in the first trimester of pregnancy.
While fatigue can sometimes be a symptom of structural heart disease, it is not nearly as concerning as the diastolic murmur in this patient. Nausea and vomiting is present in anywhere from 50 to 90% of all pregnant women. As noted above, a systolic murmur (choice E) is a very common finding during pregnancy. Up to 90% of all pregnant women will have such a murmur during pregnancy. As long as the murmur is systolic, no louder than III/VI and there is no other symptomatology, the murmur can be considered to be benign.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 pointsA 42-year-old woman is very worried that she has missed the right time to have her combined test for Down´s syndrome screening. She is now 17 weeks pregnant. You counsel her about the appropriate alternative, the quadruple test. What assays make up the quadruple test?
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Explanation:
Down´s syndrome screening is offered to all pregnant women in the UK. She is 42 which gives you an age-related risk of one in 55 of having a child with Down`s syndrome. Early in the second trimester the combined test is offered. This includes an ultrasound scan of the fetal neck looking at the nuchal translucency (NT) and two blood tests – PAPP-A and beta hCG. This can be reliably performed from 10 to 13 weeks. Ideally, an integrated test using the combined test and the quadruple test can be used to create a Down´s risk. As she has missed the chance to have an NT, she would only be offered the quadruple test, which is unconjugated oestradiol, total hCG, AFP and inhibin A. The downside of the quadruple test is that it has a 4.4 per cent false-positive rate compared with 2.2 per cent for the combined test and only 1 per cent for the integrated test. In the event of a high risk result, this woman would be offered an amniocentesis to exclude Down´s syndrome and other chromosome abnormalities.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 pointsA 24-year-old woman has gestational diabetes. You explain to her that sugar control is important and there are specific glucose ranges that she should try to adhere to. Which of the following would be correct advice for this woman?
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Explanation:
In diabetes in pregnancy the reference ranges for sugar control are slightly different. Ideally before every meal the blood sugar should be less than 5.5µmol/L and I hour after a meal less than 7.8 µmol/L. Outside of pregnancy 2-hour post meal readings are taken. So (C) is the correct answer. The appointment will involve referral to the dietician, the diabetes nurse (to learn how to test and record her blood sugars) and counseling about the risks of diabetes in pregnancy. These risks involve neonatal hypoglycaemia, pre-eclampsia, preterm labour, polyhydramnios, macrosomia and shoulder dystocia.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 pointsA 30-year-old woman at term is admitted in spontaneous labour being fully dilated.She is actively pushing for 60 minutes. On PA, the head is 0/5th palpable. Vaginal examination by the midwife has been unable to determine the position. The station is at the level of the Ischial spines. Next step is:
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Explanation:
This answer is C. The likely reason for a delay in second stage is mal-position of the fetal head. Examination in theatre (not delivery room) and delivery by forceps after manual rotation or rotational forceps delivery is appropriate. Disputed position of presenting part is a contraindication to ventouse. Contractions are normal so syntocinon may not help.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 pointsA 34-year-old lady is admitted to the delivery suite at 32 weeks gestation with severe abdominal pain. She is a known sickle cell disease patient. USS shows a normally grown fetus with no obvious uterine fibroids. She had an episode of diarrhea 3 days ago. Abdominal and vaginal examination is normal. Next step is: Correct
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Explanation:
This answer is B. Sickle cell crisis could be precipitated by dehydration and needs aggressive fluid therapy. Hence other options are not suitable.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 pointsA 31-year-old woman presents at 34 weeks´ gestation with a dull ache in her left calf. She is a smoker, and on examination there are superficial varicose veins present on both sides with localised left calf tenderness. Doppler studies show a loss of patency of the left long saphenous vein with a thrombus extending for 5 cm along the left popliteal fossa. Next immediate step is:
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Explanation:
This answer is H. The treatment dose of Enoxaparin needs to be commenced immediately recommended to be 1.5 mg/kg. 1 mg of heparin is equal to 100 IU. Warfarin takes time to affect so even if started in acute cases; it will not have an effect immediately. Moreover it should be cautiously used due to teratogenicity in early trimesters. Other options are not of immediate importance and are either irrelevant or meant for prevention.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 pointsA 26-year-old woman in her second pregnancy has progressed normally in the first and second stages of labour. A forceps delivery is undertaken due to a suboptimal CTG. There is difficulty in delivering the fetal shoulder. Help has been summoned. Suprapubic pressure and the McRoberts procedure have been unsuccessful. What is the appropriate next step?
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Explanation:
This answer is C. Pelvic manoeuvre such as delivery of the posterior shoulder and Wood´s Cox screw manoeuvres are the next steps after McRoberts maneuver and suprapubic pressure if they fail. Zavanelli´s technique under general anesthesia could be considered in true shoulder dystocia. If McRoberts, suprapubic pressure and pelvic manoeuvre have been unsuccessful, next step is moving onto all fours. In the home set-up, repeating all the manoeuvre on all fours would be the most appropriate.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 pointsA 27-year-old multiparous woman has a rapid delivery soon after arriving in the delivery suite. After delivery of the placenta she is noted to have heavy vaginal bleeding. Help has been summoned. What is the most appropriate next step?
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Explanation:
This answer is A. Bimanual compression would be the next step in managing atonic PPH after IV. This decreases the blood loss by kinking the uterine arteries. The main cause is atonicity so fresh frozen plasma will not be the first step here. Examination under anesthesia should be done in traumatic deliveries. Traumatic postpartum haemorrhage should be kept in mind in all instrumental deliveries. IV access has already been given. -
Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 pointsMaternal cocaine use in pregnancy has the following recognized effects:
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Explanation:
Cocaine abuse: causes IUGR through uterine vessel vasoconstriction, resulting in decreased uterine blood flow, fetal hypoxia and increased fetal blood pressure. Fetal vasospasm can also occur and mat cause digit loss or cerebral infarction. There is an increased incidence of early pregnancy loss, plus placenta abruption and preterm labour. Unlike opiates, cocaine is not usually associated with neonatal withdrawal.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 pointsA 24 year old gravid 1 para 0 comes to you for at 38 weeks gestation with complains of severe headaches and epigastric pain. She has had an uneventful pregnancy to date and had a normal prenatal examination 2 weeks ago. He blood pressure is 140/100 mmHg. A urinalysis shows 2+ protein; she has gained 5 lb in the last week, and has 2+ pitting edema of her legs. What would be the most appropriate management at this point?
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Explanation:
This patient manifests a rapid onset of preeclampsia at term. The symptoms of epigastric pain and headache categorize her preeclampsia as severe. These symptoms indicate that the progress is well advanced and that convulsions are imminent. Treatment should focus on rapid control of symptoms and delivery of the infant.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following can be diagnosed with certainty by ultrasound at 16 weeks?
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Explanation:
Obstetric ultrasound done at 16 weeks can detect abnormalities such as neural tube defects (eg spina bifida, anencephaly). The sex of the baby can usually be determined by ultrasound at any time after l6 weeks, often at the dating scan around 20 weeks into the pregnancy depending upon the quality of the sonographic machine and skill of the operator. This is also the best time to have an ultrasound done as most infants are the same size at this stage of development. Trisomy 21 will be diagnosed by karyotyping. Placenta previa will be diagnosed late in pregnancy as most low-lying placentae move up with development of the lower segment.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 pointsAfter birth an infant´s heart rate is 120 per minute, respiratory effort is a good strong cry, muscle tone is active, reflex irritability is absent, colour is pink with blue extremities. What is the one minute Apgar score? Correct
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Explanation:
The following table shows how to calculate Apgar scores:
Sign 0 point 1 point 2 point A Activity (Muscle tone) Limp Limbs flexed Active movement P Pulse (heart rate) absent < 100 /min > 100 /min G Grimace (response to smell or foot slap) absent Grimace Cough or sneeze (nose) cry and withdrawal of foot (foot slap) A Appearance (color) blue Body pink extremities blue Pink all over R Respiration (breathing) absent Irregular weak crying Good strong cry This baby would have an APGHAR score of 2+2+0+1+2=7.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 pointsA 25 year old woman at 36 weeks gestation plans to breastfeed her infant. She has a history of bipolar disorder, but is currently doing well without medication, and also has a history of frequent urinary tract infections. She enquires about medications that she may need to take after delivery, and how they may affect her newborn. Which medication is contraindicated if she breastfeeds her infant?
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Explanation:
Of the drugs listed; the only maternal medication that affects the infant is lithium. Breastfed infants of women taking lithium can have blood lithium concentrations that are 30%-50% of therapeutic levels. -
Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 pointsA pregnant female presents with vaginal bleeding at 20 weeks of gestation. She is type O, Rh negative. She doesn´t know the father´s blood type. When will you give Rhogam?
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Explanation:
In a woman with Rh incompatibility, there is a substance in her baby red blood cells that in not in her blood cells. This substance ie called the Rho (D) factor. People who have the Rho (D) factor are Rh positive. People who do not have it are Rh negative. While pregnant or during delivering, some of the baby´s red blood cells may come in contact with the mother´s blood. The mother´s body may then make antibodies to the Rho (D) factor. This reaction is called- sensitization. The antibodies may cross the placenta and destroy the red blood cells in the baby or any Rh-positive babies you have later. This destruction of red blood cells is called hemolytic disease. Rh incompatibility happens only if you are Rh negative and your baby is Rh positive. RhoGAM contains antibodies to the Rho (D) factor. The antibodies in the shot will destroy any red blood cells from the baby that are the mother´s blood. Then the mother will not make its own antibodies to the Rho (D) factor. A shot at 28 weeks and after delivery, sensitization will be prevented and Rh incompatibility should not be a problem during the next pregnancy.
If a woman has a threatened miscarriage but does not actually miscarry, she will need a RhoGAM shot. -
Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 pointsA couple is unable to conceive after 1 year. Which is correct regarding infertility statistics?
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Explanation:
Infertility is the inability of a couple to achieve a pregnancy after repeated intercourse without contraception for l year.
Infertility affects about one of five couples in the Canada. It is becoming increasingly common because people are waiting longer to marry and to-have a child. Nevertheless, up to 60% of the couples who have not conceived after a year of trying to conceive eventually, with or without treatment. The goal of treatment is to reduce the time needed to conceive or to provide couples who right not otherwise conceive the opportunity to do so. Before treatment is begun, counseling that provides information about the treatment process (including its .duration) and the chances of success is beneficial.
The cause of infertility may be due to problems in the man, the woman, or both. Problems with sperm, ovulation, or the fallopian tubes each account for almost one third of infertility cases. In a small percentage of cases, infertility is caused by problems with mucus in the cervix or by unidentified factors. Thus, the diagnosis of infertility problems requires a thorough assessment of both partners. -
Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 pointsA young female comes to you to start oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following is not a contraindication for starting OCP´s?
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Explanation:
Absolute contraindications to oral contraceptive pill (OCP) use are: Thrombophlebitis, thromboembolic disorders, cerebrovascular disorders, ischemic heart disease, coronary artery disease, known or suspected cancer of the breast, known or suspected estrogendependent cancer, known or suspected pregnancy, benign or malignant liver tumor, undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 pointsA young female comes to you to start oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following is not a contraindication for starting OCP´s?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Absolute contraindications to oral contraceptive pill (OCP) use are: Thrombophlebitis, thromboembolic disorders, cerebrovascular disorders, ischemic heart disease, coronary artery disease, known or suspected cancer of the breast, known or suspected estrogendependent cancer, known or suspected pregnancy, benign or malignant liver tumor, undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 pointsThe antiphospholipid syndrome in women is commonly associated with which of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Women with antiphospholipid antibodies, including lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibodies are at significant risk for adverse pregnancy outcome. In primary antiphospholipid syndrome (APS), fetal loss is reported to be between 50% and 75%. Recurrent spontaneous abortion, particularly in the second trimester, is one of the most consistent features of this syndrome. Other pregnancy-related complications include intrauterine growth retardation, placental abruption, preeclampsia, and premature delivery. Dysmenorrhea, metrorrhagia, and amenorrhea are not commonly associated with this condition. A false-positive test for syphilis does not fulfill the laboratory criteria for the diagnosis of APS, and patients with APS are not known to be at increased risk for syphilis.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 pointsYour patient is in the second stage of labor, and you determine that the fetus is in face presentation, mentum anterior. Progress has been rapid and fetal heart tones are normal. What would you do now? Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Most infants with face presentation, mentum anterior, can be delivered vaginally, either spontaneously or with low forceps. Cesarean section is indicated for fetal distress and failure to progress. Midforceps delivery is not indicated. If fetal electrodes are attached, the chin is the preferred location.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 pointsA 28 year old female who is breastfeeding her 2 week old infant develops fever and severe myalgia. Fissures are noted on her breasts on physical examination. The most likely causative organism is
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Explanation:
A breast infection (mastitis) is rare, except around the time of childbirth after an injury or surgery. The most common symptom is a swollen, red area that feels warm and tender. An uncommon type of breast cancer called inflammatory breast cancer can produce similar symptoms. A breast infection is treated with antibiotics. Staphylococcal breast infections (mastitis) and abscesses typically develop 1 to 4 weeks after delivery. The infected area is red and painful. Breast abscesses often release large numbers of bacteria into the mother´s milk, and these milk-borne bacteria may infect the nursing infant.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 pointsA 27 year old, 15 weeks pregnant woman with first child presents with extremely painful, blister-like lesions on her labia. She had similar episodes before pregnancy. Her temperature is normal. True statement about her pregnancy is which of the following?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
With genital herpes, if a woman does have a lesion or prodromal symptoms at delivery, the safest practice is a cesarean delivery to prevent the baby from coming into contact with active virus. Many women find that their outbreaks tend to increase as the pregnancy progresses, probably because of the immune suppression that takes place to prevent the mother´s body from rejecting the fetus. Between 10% and 14% of women with genital herpes have an active lesion at delivery. The odds are higher for women who acquire herpes during pregnancy, and lower for women who have had herpes for more than six years.
If a woman doesn´t have herpes lesions at the time of delivery, the standard of care recommended is vaginal delivery. This does expose the baby to a very small risk of infection from possible asymptomatic shedding. -
Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 pointsA 26 year old woman has just given birth to a 3200-g (7-lb 1-oz) boy with an Apgar score of 9 at both 1 and 5 minutes. Mother is HIV positive and received no prenatal care. She acquired HIV infection from her husband who is also HIV positive. When you visit the mother to discuss the medical care of her baby and to obtain more history, she is in tears and asks you what the chances are of her baby being infected with HIV. Which is most appropriate to tell her?
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Explanation:
The risk of vertical transmission of HIV (from mother to child) has been revived a number of times since the initial clinical description of HIV and AIDS in the 1980s. As it currently stands, the consensus opinion on risk is approximately 50% in women with children that have not received perinatal therapy with AZT. The medication protocol reduces the risk to less than 25%. Because newborn children have antibody complements that are from their mothers, it is crucial to follow them over the first year of life as their own immune system develops.
Symptoms of AIDS are not related to risk of transmission of HIV. AIDS is defined as a CD4 count of less than 500 with an HIV associated disease present (such as PCP pneumonia or Kaposi sarcoma). The risk of infection instead relates to the viral burden in the bloodstream of the mother. This burden is quantified using HIV RNA copy number. The HIV RNA copy number relates to symptomatic AIDS in a complex manner but low copy number patients can be symptomatic and vice versa. -
Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 pointsA full-term infant, born 72 hours ago, is noted to be jaundiced. The pregnancy was uneventful and the delivery uncomplicated. The mother has type A-positive blood and the child has type O-positive. The child is breastfed and has lost 9 ounces from a birth weight of 8 lb. He is feeding for 20 minutes every 4 hours and has normal examination except for being icteric. Laboratory evaluation reveals a total serum bilirubin level of 15 mg/dL (N 1.4-8.7), with a conjugated bilirubin level of 1.0 mg/dL. His hemoglobin level is 17.8 g/dL (N 13.4-19.8), his hematocrit is 54% (N 41-65), and his reticulocyte count is 3% (N 3-7). What would be the appropriate management?
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Explanation:
Hyperbilirubinemia can occur in up to 60% of term newborns during the first week of life. Early guidelines on management of elevated bilirubin were based on studies of bilirubin toxicity in infants who had hemolytic disease. Current recommendations now support the use of less intensive therapy in term newborns with jaundice who are otherwise healthy. Phototherapy should be initiated when the bilirubin level is above 15 mg/dL for infants at age 29-48 hours old, at 18 mg/dL for infants 49-72, and at 20 mg/dL in infants older than 72 hours. Generally, this problem is not considered pathologic unless it presents during the first hours after birth and the total serum bilirubin rises by more than 5mg dL/day or is higher than 17 mg/dL, or if the infant has signs or symptoms suggestive of a serious underlying illness such as sepsis. Fortunately, very few term newborns with jaundice have serious underlying pathology.
Physiologic jaundice follows a pattern, with the bilirubin level peaking on the third or fourth day of life and then declining over the first week after birth. Infants with multiple risk factors may develop an exaggerated form of physiologic jaundice, with the total bilirubin level rising as high as 17 mg/dL. Breastfed infants are at an increased risk for exaggerated physiologic jaundice because of relative caloric, deprivation in the first few days of life. Compared with formula-fed infants, those who are breastfed are six times more likely to experience moderate jaundice, with the bilirubin rising above 12 mg/dL. For breastfed newborns who have an early onset of hyperbilirubinemia, the frequency of feeding should be increased to more than 10 times per day. If the newborn has a decrease in weight gain, delayed stooling, and continued poor intake, then formula supplementation may be necessary. Breastfeeding should be continued to maintain breast milk production. Supplemental water or dextrose and water should not be given, as thin can decrease breast milk production and may place the infant at risk for iatrogenic hyponatremia. -
Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 pointsA 34 year old pregnant woman is diagnosed as having chlamydial urethritis? What is the most effective treatment?
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Explanation:
Erythromycin and other macrolide antibiotics are useful for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in pregnant women. Although tetracycline is indicated as the first line defense for chlamydial urethritis, it should be avoided during pregnancy because it localizes to enamel and bone in the fetus, causing grey staining and bone growth retardation. Grey baby syndrome is associated with chloramphenicol use.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 pointsA 35 year old pregnant woman presents for the first time with severe, unilateral, throbbing headache in the left temporal region associated with nausea and vomiting. Her blood pressure is normal and there is no protein in the urine. The best treatment for her is Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This patient has classic migraine symptoms, probably induced by hormonal changes during pregnancy and her symptoms will subsequently subside over time with rest and reassurance. Toxemia of pregnancy is not present because of her normal blood pressure and urine. Therefore, magnesium sulfate is not indicated. Ergot alkaloids cause vasoconstriction and should not be given during pregnancy. Demerol should be avoided during pregnancy and sumatriptin, which is a central serotonin receptor agonist, should .be avoided as well because of risks to the fetus.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 pointsA 36 year old woman is brought to the ER in a state of shock after she collapses and loses consciousness. She had been complaining of severe lower abdominal pain accompanied by some nausea for several hours, but did not go to a doctor because of thought of a severe gastrointestinal infection. Gynecologic examination reveals a mass lesion of one adnexa and bulging of the cul-de-sac. Serum hCG level is above the normal range. Which organism´s prior long standing infection would most likely to predispose for this woman´s condition?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This case illustrates a classic presentation of ectopic pregnancy with tubular rupture and hemorrhage. The most common predisposing factor is pelvic inflammatory disease, most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The fallopian tube scarring is due to a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Chlamydia trachomatis is an intracellular organism that is non Gram staining, but can be identified by iodine or Giemsa staining. Treat with doxycycline or azithromycin. Other risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include a previous ectopic pregnancy, exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES), and induced abortion. Escherichia does not usually cause female genital disease. Herpes, human papilloma virus, and Treponema can all infect the female genital tract, but are not important causes of pelvic inflammatory disease.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 pointsA 26-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks´ gestation comes for induction of labor. The prenatal course was significant for a positive group B Streptococcus culture at 35 weeks but testing over the past 2 weeks has been unremarkable. She is given Ringer lactate and as her cervix is long, thick, and closed, Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed into the vagina. In approximately 60 minutes, the fetal heart rate falls to the 90s and the uterus is contracting every 1 minute with no rest in between contractions. What was most likely the cause of uterine hyperstimulation?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is widely used for labor induction. In simple terms, it is used “to soften” an unfavorable cervix, to make the cervix more favorable for induction. It has been shown to lead to an improvement in the Bishop´s score, a shorter duration of labor, a need for lower maximal doses of oxytocin, and a reduced incidence of cesarean deliveries. PGE2 gel can also cause uterine contractions. One of the major side effects with PGE2 gel is uterine hyperstimulation. This occurs when uterine contractions come one right after the other, or when there is a tetanic contraction (a prolonged uterine contraction with no rest period). In this setting, the fetus can become hypoxic with a resultant bradycardia. This patient had the gel placed and 60 minutes later had uterine hyperstimulation. Infection (choice A) has not been shown to cause uterine hyperstimulation. This patient´s group B Streptococcus colonization is likely noncontributory. IV fluids (choice B), unless oxytocin is present, do not cause uterine hyperstimulation. Postdates pregnancy (choice C) is the reason for this patient´s induction and not likely the direct cause of her uterine hyperstimulation. Vaginal examination (choice E) does not usually cause uterine hyperstimulation. Vaginal examination with a cervical examination can be used for fetal scalp stimulation-rubbing the baby´s head to provoke an acceleration of the fetal heart rate. However, this does not usually provoke uterine hyperstimulation.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 pointsA 33-year-old woman, G3, P3, asymptomatic woman has past medical history significant for two episodesof Chlamydia and one episode of gonorrhea. She had 3 normal deliveries with gestational diabetes during the last twopregnancies. Her father had CAD. What intervention should this patient most likely have?
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Explanation:
Patients with a history of gestational diabetes have a high likelihood for eventually developing overt diabetes. These women should therefore be extensively counseled regarding the importance of diet and exercise. Along with counseling, testing is necessary to determine which patients actually do develop overt diabetes. Testing should be performed in the first few months following the delivery. This testing may be a 75-g, 2- hour, oral glucose tolerance test. Diabetes is diagnosed if the fasting glucose level exceeds 140 mg/dL, or two post-glucose measurements exceed 200 mg/dL. Patients should then undergo fasting glucose testing every 3 years. This patient, given her history of gestational diabetes, needs to have regular testing.
Chest x-ray every 3 years (choice A) is not recommended as a screening test for this patient. Although the number of deaths from lung cancer surpasses that of breast cancer, and lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in women, routine chest x-ray is not used as a regular screening test.
Coronary angiography every 3 years (choice B) would not be recommended for this patient. This is an invasive procedure that currently is not used as a regular screening test in the general population. Mammography every 3 years (choice D) would not be recommended for this patient. At 33 years of age, she does not yet require routine mammography. She should have a mammogram every 1-2 years starting at age 40, and then annually starting at age 50. Pap testing every 3 years (choice E) would not be recommended for this patient. Pap testing should be performed annually starting at age 18, or with the initiation of sexual intercourse. Some recommend that the interval can be increased at the physician´s discretion in a low-risk patient with three normal Pap tests in a row. Others dispute this, arguing that annual Pap tests should be performed on all women. In any event, this patient, with her history of Chlamydia and gonorrhea, is not low risk and therefore needs annual Pap testing.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 pointsA 14-year-old girl attends the walk-in clinic and requests contraception. Her periods are irregular and her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She has been sexually active for the past 4 months.
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Explanation:
This answer is D. Pregnancy needs to be ruled out prior to initiating contraception or termination.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 pointsA 30-year-old woman at term is admitted in spontaneous labour being fully dilated.She is actively pushing for 60 minutes. On PA, the head is 0/5th palpable. Vaginal examination by the midwife has been unable to determine the position. The station is at the level of the Ischial spines. Next step is:
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Explanation:
This answer is C. The likely reason for a delay in second stage is mal-position of the fetal head. Examination in theatre (not delivery room) and delivery by forceps after manual rotation or rotational forceps delivery is appropriate. Disputed position of presenting part is a contraindication to ventouse. Contractions are normal so syntocinon may not help.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 pointsA 32-year-old primipara at 20 weeks gestation has sudden onset of severe epigastric and right hypochondrial radiating to her back. It increases with fatty meals. Amylase =1600 IU. USS shows multiple gallstones with a normal common bile duct. The pancreas and liver appear normal. Best option to treat is:
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Explanation:
This answer is B. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy can be safely performed during pregnancy if indicated. Hence other options are unworthy.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 pointsA 34-year-old primigravida 18 weeks pregnant has a 2-day history of vomiting and a feeling that her heart has been beating faster on several occasions. She looks anxious. Pulse=110 bpm and BP=140/70 mmHg. She has a fine tremor. T4=200 nmol/L (70-140 nmol/L), a T3 of 6 nmol/L (1.2-3.0 nmol/L) and aTSH level =0.1 μ/L (0.5-5.0 nmol/L). ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Initial step in treatment is:
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Explanation:
This answer is A. Graves´ disease, if diagnosed during pregnancy, can be treated with Propylthiouracil. However, initial acute-stage management would need beta-blockers and supportive measures. Hence the best initial step will be to give beta-blockers and supportive measures.
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 pointsA 38-year-old lady presents to the labour ward with headache. She works as a manager and is currently 24 weeks pregnant. She describes it as a squeezing type of pain in her forehead. Her blood pressure and neurological examination are normal.
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Explanation:
This answer is C. Tension headache is typically described as a tight band or squeezing type of headache and is related to stress. Simple analgesics help in relieving the pain. Cluster headache is more common in men than women, but periorbital oedema and unilateral presentation are typical. Iatrogenic headache will follow a stimulus e.g. severe headaches with flushing are common with Nifedipine. Primary brain tumor will produce signs and symptoms of raised ICP and will not present like this pain.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 pointsA 25-year-old primigravida has fetal bradycardia in the second stage of labour.She has no pain relief and has been pushing for the past 30 minutes. The fetalhead is in the left occipitoposterior position with head below the Ischial spines. Next step is:
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Explanation:
This answer is C. This is the quickest method of delivery under the circumstances. In this case, the heart rate is itself abnormal so prompt delivery is the next step and not wasting time doing investigations. You cannot wait for normal delivery here.
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 pointsA 32-year-old Chinese lady with short stature develops gestational diabetes. She is being induced at 38 weeks for fetal microsomia. After delivery of the head shoulder dystocia is diagnosed with both fetal shoulders above the pelvic brim. What is the appropriate next step?
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Explanation:
This answer is B. Zavanelli´s technique under general anesthesia could be considered in trueshoulder dystocia. Pelvic manoeuvres such as delivery of the posterior shoulder and Wood´s Cox screw manoeuvres are the next steps after McRoberts manoeuvre and suprapubic pressure if they fail. If McRoberts, suprapubic pressure and pelvic manoeuvres have been unsuccessful, next step is moving onto all fours.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following drugs are teratogenic?
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Explanation:
There is no evidence that ranitidine, metformin or the OCP is teratogenic although it was once believed that aspirin and the OCP were, studies indicate otherwise. Similarly, metformin is often used in PCOs to induce fertility through reduction in insulin resistance. Warfarin is associated with CNS and skeletal abnormalities if foetal exposure occurs in the first trimester, plus foetal haemorrhage is more likely. Statins also are associated with teratogenicity. Valproate causes birth defects: exposure during pregnancy is associated with about three times as many major anomalies as usual, mainly spina bifida and, more rarely, with several other defects, possibly including a “valproate syndrome”.
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 pointsEpidural bupivacaine administered during labour may cause:
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Explanation:
High concentrations of bupivacaine may cause an increase in the rate of instrumental delivery but not an increase in the rate of caesarian sections (NEJM 2005; 352:655-665).
Pruritus is due to opiates.
Tinnitus may occur when bupivacaine is given intravascularly or when the plasma levels of bupvacaine reach toxic levels. A total spinal or high spin block occurs when a large volume of bupivacaine is injected into the subarachnoid space and is a rare complication of an epidural (read the question).
Epidural bupivacaine does not decrease uterine contractility. -
Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 pointsThe following may be normal findings in a healthy pregnancy patient except:
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Explanation:
In many women, mild thrombocytopenia (not thrombocytosis) occurs toward the end of pregnancy, and the platelet count returns to normal within days after delivery. The etiology for this phenomenon is unknown. This is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia during pregnancy, occurring in approximately 5% of women at term. Thrombocytopenia may be associated with HELLP syndrome (haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelet count), which can lead to foetal and maternal death.
Pregnancy is associated with clinical features that in a non-pregnant patient would point to organic disease. Polyuria, dyspepsia, decreased exercise tolerance, enlargement of the heart (with lateral displacement of the apex), a loud third heart sound and an ejection systolic murmur (loudest at the left sternal edge) are all common.
Less commonly, a fourth heart sound and a diastolic murmur may be present. Left axis deviation with flattening or T wave inversion in lead III can be seen on the electrocardiograph (ECG).
The alkaline phosphatase is frequently elevated but the remainder of the liver function tests should be in the normal range. -
Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 pointsThe following may be normal findings in a healthy pregnancy patient except:
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Incorrect
Explanation:
In many women, mild thrombocytopenia (not thrombocytosis) occurs toward the end of pregnancy, and the platelet count returns to normal within days after delivery. The etiology for this phenomenon is unknown. This is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia during pregnancy, occurring in approximately 5% of women at term. Thrombocytopenia may be associated with HELLP syndrome (haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelet count), which can lead to foetal and maternal death.
Pregnancy is associated with clinical features that in a non-pregnant patient would point to organic disease. Polyuria, dyspepsia, decreased exercise tolerance, enlargement of the heart (with lateral displacement of the apex), a loud third heart sound and an ejection systolic murmur (loudest at the left sternal edge) are all common.
Less commonly, a fourth heart sound and a diastolic murmur may be present. Left axis deviation with flattening or T wave inversion in lead III can be seen on the electrocardiograph (ECG).
The alkaline phosphatase is frequently elevated but the remainder of the liver function tests should be in the normal range. -
Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 pointsNormal pregnancy is associated with
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Explanation:
Due to dilution, urea and Hb (haematocrit) is reduced. Although total T4 is reduced, free T4 concentrations are maintained in a normal range. Raised fasting plasma glucose would not be typical of a normal pregnancy and raised uric acid is found in eclampsia. Typically, the increased GFR also causes a reduction in urea/uric acid etc.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 pointsA 24 year old primigravida presents with sharp, stabbing, left-sided pelvic pain that started yesterday, 45 days after her last menstrual period. Her past history is unremarkable, and a physical examination is normal except for moderate tenderness in the left adnexal on pelvic examination. Urinalysis and CBC are normal. Her Beta hCG level is 1500 mIU/mL. Assuming no adnexal mass is seen, the transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography findings would be consistent with the highest likelihood of an ectopic pregnancy would be
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Explanation:
Empty uterus: empty endometrial cavity with or without a thickened endometrium
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 pointsA 28 year old woman is currently 10 weeks pregnant. She is HbsAg positive and is concerned about the risk of transmission to the baby. The most appropriate strategy would be which of the following?
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Explanation:
Newborns who are exposed to hepatitis B have more than a 90% chance of becoming chronically infected. This means the virus stays in their blood and liver for possibly a lifetime. They can pass the virus on to others. They will also live with a greater chance of developing liver failure or liver cancer later in life.
It is most important that the newborn receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine in the delivery room. If possible, also give the hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG), which is another medication that helps the vaccine to work even more successfully.
According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the World Health Organization (WHO), it is safe for an infected woman to breastfeed her child. -
Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following supports a diagnosis of mild preeclampsia rather than severe preeclampsia in a 34 year old primigravida at 35 weeks gestation?
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Explanation:
The criteria for severe preeclampsia specify a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or above on two occasions, 6 hours apart. Other criteria include proteinuria above 5 g/24 hr, thrombocytopenia with a platelet count < 100,000/mm3, liver enzyme abnormalities, epigastric or right upper quadrant pain; alteration of mental status.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following supports a diagnosis of mild preeclampsia rather than severe preeclampsia in a 34 year old primigravida at 35 weeks gestation?
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Explanation:
The criteria for severe preeclampsia specify a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or above on two occasions, 6 hours apart. Other criteria include proteinuria above 5 g/24 hr, thrombocytopenia with a platelet count < 100,000/mm3, liver enzyme abnormalities, epigastric or right upper quadrant pain; alteration of mental status.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 pointsThe most worrisome finding in a post-dated pregnancy is which of the following?
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Explanation:
A nonstress test (NST) measures the fetal heart rate in response to the fetus movements. Generally, the heart rate of a healthy fetus increases when the fetus moves. The NST is usually performed in the last trimester of pregnancy. A nonreactive/non-reassuring NST is when there is no change in the fetal heart rate when the fetus moves. This may indicate a problem that requires further testing.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 pointsA 27 year old woman presents to you 5 weeks after her last menstrual period with complaint of painless spotting for 2 days. She is not using contraception and is trying to conceive. She had regular menses until her last menstrual period, and a home pregnancy test was positive 5 days ago. Her only previous pregnancy, 4 years ago, was electively terminated at 8 weeks gestation. Her past history is positive for episode of presumed salpingitis treated with intravenous antibiotics 2 years ago.
Physical Findings
Abdomen………….nontender
Vagina…………..small amount of dark blood in the posterior fornix
Cervix…………..no active bleeding
Bimanual…………uterus slightly enlarged, adnexal nontender, no masses
Laboratory Findings
Urine pregnancy test……..positive
Beta-hCG………………..1400 mIU/mL
Vaginal ultrasound……….3-mm sac with no definite fetal contents adnexal negative
What is the most appropriate action at this point?Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
In a pregnancy complicated by bleeding at less than 8 weeks gestation, it is often difficult to determine whether there is a viable, intrauterine pregnancy, a nonviable intrauterine pregnancy, or an ecopic pregnancy. Vaginal ultrasonography can be used to detect intrauterine pregnancy as early as 1 week after conception if the Beta- hCG level is > 1500 mIU/mL. An empty uterus with a Beta-hCG level > 1500 mIU/mL is highly suggestive of ecoptic pregnancy. When the Beta- -hCG is < 15000 mIU/mL and vaginal ultrasonography is nondiagnostic, the Beta-hCG should be repeated in 2-3 days. Failure of the Beta-hCG to double in 2-3 days suggests a blighted ovum or ectopic pregnancy. The efficacy of progesterone in early pregnancy has not been proven, and there is some potential risk (virilization of the female fetus). An ectopic pregnancy is possible in this situation, but would be more like if the hCG were higher in the presence of an empty uterus, or if there were an adnexal mass on physical examination or ultrasonography.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not a contraindication to epidural anesthesia?
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Explanation:
Contraindications for epidural anesthesia include: patient refusal for surgery, uncooperative patient, abnormal bleeding or clotting parameters, anti-coagulant therapy, skin infection at/near injection site, uncorrected fluid loss (Hypovolemia), and low blood pressure, presence of neurological disorders, cardiovascular diseases and anatomical abnormalities of the vertebral column.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 pointsFalse regarding IUGR (Intrauterine Growth Retardation) is
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Explanation:
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is a term used to describe a condition in which the fetus is smaller than expected for the number of weeks of pregnancy. Another term for IUGR is fetal growth restriction.
Newborn babies with IUGR are often described as small for gestational age (SGA). A fetus with IUGR often has an estimated fetal weight less than the 10th percentile. Maternal factors associated with IUGR are high blood pressure, chronic kidney disease, advanced diabetes, heart or respiratory disease, malnutrition, anemia, infection, substance abuse (alcohol, drugs) and cigarette smoking. Factors involving the uterus and placenta are decreased blood flow in the uterus and placenta, placental abruption (placenta detaches from the uterus), placenta previa (placenta attaches low in the uterus) and infection in the tissues around the fetus. Factors related to the developing baby (fetus) are multiple gestation (twins, triplets, etc.), infection, birth defects and chromosomal abnormality.