GENERAL PRACTITIONER EXAM
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointsA 7 day infant born at term has had decreased appetite, irritability, and vomiting for 24 hours. He is on exclusive breastfeeding. On physical examination, the infant appears listless. Respiratory rate is 40/min; heart rate, 160/min; and blood pressure, 68/38 mmHg. He skin and sclera are icteric but no other abnormalities are noted. Laboratory studies reveal: hemoglobin 120 g/L; total bilirubin, 270umol/L; and direct bilirubin, 135umol/L. Urinalysis is negative for reducing substance. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
Neonatal sepsis is invasive bacterial infection occurring in the 1st 90 days of life. Signs are multiple and include diminished spontaneous activity, less vigorous sucking, apnea, bradycardia, temperature instability, respiratory distress, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal, distention, jitteriness, seizures, and jaundice. Diagnosis is clinical, with extensive laboratory testing. Treatment is initially with ampicillin plus either gentamicin or cefotaxime, narrowed to organism- specific drugs as soon as possible.
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 pointsA healthy, full-term, breastfed infant is jaundiced at 24 hours of age. The indirect serum bilirubin level is 210umol/L. The mother is blood type O, Rh positive. The most appropriate step is which of the following?
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Explanation:
The Coombs test looks for antibodies that act against red blood cells. An abnormal (positive) direct Coombs´ test means the patient has antibodies that as against their red blood cells. This may be due to autoimmune hemolytic anemia without another underlying cause, drug- induced hemolytic anemia (many drugs have been associated with this complication) or erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn).
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 pointsAn 11 year old boy is brought to the emergency department by his father because the boy is slightly lethargic and has labored breathing. The father reports that the boy is “always thirsty” and “urinates a lot.” The boy´s pulse is 120/min, respiratory are 32/min and blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show:
Na+ 132 mEq/L
K+ 4.1 mEq/L
C1 92 mEq/L
NCO3 6.6 mEq/L
Glucose 850 mg/dL
The boy is treated with intravenous insulin and isotonic saline solution. Several hours later, he is improved and his serum glucose concentration is 450 mg/dL. The most appropriate next step is which of the following?Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This boy obviously has diabetes mellitus. Treatment with insulin has reduced his serum glucose concentration, and there will also have been a concomitant shift of K+ from the extracellular compartment into the cells. Unless replaced, this loss will have dire consequences. Therefore, the most appropriate next step is to add K+ to the intravenous fluid.
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not included in the initial assessment of a child with failure to thrive?
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Explanation:
Failure to thrive is a condition commonly seen by primary care physicians. Prompt diagnosis and intervention are important for preventing malnutrition and developmental sequelae. Medical and social factors often contribute to failure to thrive. Either extreme of parental attention (neglect or hypervigilance) can lead to failure to thrive. About 25 percent of normal infants will shift to a lower growth percentile in the first two years of life and then follow that percentile; this should not be diagnosed as failure to thrive. Infants with Down syndrome, intrauterine growth retardation, or premature birth follow different growth patterns than normal infants. Many infants with failure to thrive are not identified unless careful attention is paid to plotting growth parameters at routine checkups. A thorough history is the best guide to establishing the etiology of the failure to thrive and directing further evaluation and management. All children with failure to thrive need additional calories for catch- up growth (typically 150 percent of the caloric requirement for their expected, not actual, weight). Few need laboratory evaluation. Hospitalization is rarely required and is indicated only for severe failure to thrive and for those whose safety is a concern. A multidisciplinary approach is recommended when failure to thrive persists despite intervention or when it is severe. -
Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 pointsThe LEAST likely true statement regarding somatotypes of children is
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Explanation:
Ectomorphs are smaller in mass (A) compared to endomorphs, who mature earlier (C). Endomorphs possess a large amount of soft tissue (D), yet are not as muscular as the mesomorphs (B), who lie between the ectomorph and the endomorph with regard to total body mass.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 pointsA 4 year old girl is discovered pulling the tail of the family dog. Her mother, who had warned her previously that this behavior was unacceptable, now assigns the girl to a 5 minute time out period. A timer is set up so that the girl can keep track of the time period. After two minutes of the period, the girl begins to scream and cry. What would be the mother´s best response at this point?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The purpose of the time out is to remove the girl from stimuli to facilitate the extinction of unwanted behavior. To be effective, time out must be used consistently and predictably. If the child protests during a time out, as in this case, additional time is added to the period to extinguish the protest behaviors. The goal is to convey the clear message that the time out will be ended only when unacceptable behaviors are ended. To impact behavior, the intervention must be closely associated with the behavior. To delay in responding to the girl´s protests (choice A) makes it harder for her to realize that the additional time is a direct consequence of her behavior. At age 3 reasoned, rational explanations (choice B) are unlikely to have any impact on the child´s behavior. The child probably lacks the cognitive capacity to grasp the abstract rationale for why she is being disciplined. Paddling (choice C) is a type of attention, and can actually reinforce the behavior the parents are trying to extinguish. The child learns that protestation will bring the parents and their attention, even if it is negative attention. In addition, as a general rule, any response option on the exam that has someone hitting a child will almost certainly be scored as a wrong answer! This option encourages the child to cry and then demand a treat to become quiet (choice E) a kind of juvenile blackmail. Avoiding bad behavior is a baseline and need not be specially rewarded. -
Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 pointsAn infant be able to grasp a rattle at which of the following age?
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Explanation:
An infant will be able to grasp a rattle by the age of four months.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 pointsThe LEAST likely true statements concerning the normal growth and development of infants is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
At birth, the size of a newborns heart is relatively large in comparison to the size of other organs. Bone age, or osseous maturation, correlates relatively well with sexual maturity and can be determined by radiologic studies of epiphyseal centers. Nutritional requirements do change throughout life. These changes do not necessarily correlate with chronological age, but rather with the development of certain organ systems, such as the endocrine system.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following vaccine combinations are typically administered at the age of 15 years?
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Explanation:
Td (adult tetatnus toxid with diphtheria toxoid) is administered between 14 and 16 years of age. DTP and TOPV are administered at 18 months and between four to six years. MMR and Hib are administered at 15 months, while MMR alone is administered between 11-12 years.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 pointsA child should have developed the focal ability to follow an object through a 180° arc by which one of the following well child visit?
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Explanation:
Typically, children develop the focal ability to follow an object through a 180° arc by the age of two months. If they have not yet developed this ability by two months, more specific testing is indicated to assess the intelligence level of the child.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT correct regarding children at two years of age?
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Explanation:
The ability to pedal a tricycle develops at approximately three years of age, not two years. However, at two years, an infant will be able to copy a diamond (as well as other simple shapes), draw a stick figure person, ask “what´s this,” and is not capable of understanding the concept of sharing.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 pointsAn infant of 4 months age begins to experience a cholestatic jaundice with elevated serum transaminases and high alkaline phosphatase levels. When making a list of differential diagnoses, toxicity with which one of the following should also be included?
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Explanation:
Niacin overdose may cause anaphylaxis due to histamine release; also, cholestatic jaundice, cutaneous vasodilation, and cardiac arrhythmias may arise. Although thiamin toxicity is very rare, the potential adverse effects include an anaphylactic response and/or respiratory depression. There are no significant toxicities associated with biotin overdose. Vitamin A toxicity may cause pseudotumor cerebri, or retching associated with a rise in intracranial pressure. Finally vitamin C overdose may cause a decrease in copper absorption or a rise in the excretion of oxalic acid.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 pointsA child should have first developed the ability to indicate his/her wants and desires by which of the following well child office visit?
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Explanation:
By the age of fifteen months, most children have developed the ability to indicate their wants and desires-either through verbal or non-verbal actions.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 pointsA child belongs to which one of the following age group if he begins to cry when his mother starts to walk away?
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Explanation:
Children one year of age typically begin to experience stranger anxiety and separation anxiety. Children less than one year of age are most often scared of loud noises, heights, and lack of physical support. Children between the ages of two and six years are afraid of figments of their imagination (e.g., the bogeyman), as well as animals and the dark. Children who are elementary school age are more afraid of injuring themselves physically or losing a loved one, such as a parent. Adolescents and teens are scared of failing or not being accepted socially
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 pointsA 3 month old infant begins to experience respiratory depression. When making a list of differential diagnoses, toxicity of which substance should be included?
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Explanation:
Although thiamin toxicity is very rare, the potential adverse effects include an anaphylactic response and/or respiratory depression. There are no significant toxicities associated with biotin overdose. Vitamin A toxicity may cause pseudotumor cerebri, or retching associated with a rise in intracranial pressure. Niacin overdose may cause anaphylaxis due to histamine release; also, cholestatic jaundice, cutaneous vasodilation, and cardiac arrhythmias may arise. Finally vitamin C overdose may cause a decrease in copper absorption or a rise in the excretion of oxalic acid.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 pointsA newborn has a deformity of the back with a visualization of the spinal cord covered by neural membranes, facial features of a narrow bifrontal diameter, epicanthal folds, a broad and low nasal bridge, and midface hypoplasia and a short systolic murmur. Results of the echocardiography document a narrowing of the aortic arch. Which of the following was the mother most likely exposed to during her pregnancy?
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Explanation:
The physical deformities described are most characteristic of valproic acid exposure in utero. The syndrome consists of various degrees of severity that can include craniofacial anomalies, e.g., narrow bifrontal diameter, high forehead, epicanthal folds, broad and low nasal bridge, midfacial hypoplasia, long philtrum and small mouth, cardiovascular anomalies, cleft lip, and meningomyelocele. Approximately 30% of exposed infants have some features of the syndrome. The risk for the mother having a convulsion during pregnancy must be weighed against the risk for developing the syndrome in the child. Regardless, the mother must always be made aware of the fetal risks associated with any anticonvulsant medication taken during pregnancy.
Fetal exposure to alcohol may result in fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), which is characterized by prenatal onset of growth deficiency, microcephaly, short palpebral Fissures, maxillary hypoplasia, micrognathia, and a thin upper lip. There is no increased` risk for meningomyelocele.
Lithium exposure during pregnancy creates an increased risk for congenital heart defects, including Ebstein anomaly, but not a higher risk for meningomyelocele or craniofacial deformities.
Isotretinoin exposure is characterized by central nervous system defects (e.g., hydrocephalus, microcephaly, and structural errors of neuronal migration), but not meningomyelocele. Other associated abnormalities include facial asymmetry, microtia/ anotia, conotruncal cardiac abnormalities, and mental deficiency.
Thiazide diuretics used during the first trimester may minimally increase the risk for birth defects, but the risk is almost zero in the later trimesters. -
Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 pointsA 6-month-old boy has a three-day history of cough, congestion and low grade fever. He has not been feeding well and has used only two diapers in past 24 hours. He is pale with temperature of 37.8 oC (100.1 oF), pulse of 170/min, respirations of 60/min and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. The patient exhibits nasal flaring, subcostal and intercostal retractions. Lung examination reveals diffuse wheezing. Cardiac examination reveals a regular but tachycardic rhythm with no murmur. Central capillary refill is four seconds. The remainder of the examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
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Explanation:
Always remember our ABCs. A saturation of 90% corresponds to an oxygen partial pressure of around 60 mm Hg. Therefore, this patient is hypoxic and needs oxygen to help decrease his work of breathing.
Albuterol nebulizer treatments are indicated as an initial trial. If benefits are seen, they can be continued. Some studies have shown racemic epinephrine to be more effective than albuterol in viral respiratory infections. They too should follow initial oxygen therapy.
Delayed capillary refill is an indication for a bolus of IV fluid. This however, is the C in ABCs. Central refill, or the time it takes for the color to return to the skin after pressure is applied with one´s finger, is usually less than 3 seconds.
A chest x-ray film is certainly indicated, but not a priority. Steroids are not indicated in viral upper respiratory infections. In patients with suspected asthma, steroids are important, but are not the primary intervention. -
Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 pointsA 1 year old boy with recurrent pulmonary infections has signs of mild congestive heart failure. Exam shows a harsh systolic murmur with no diastolic murmur. Cardiac catheterization shows increased oxygen saturation in the right ventricle. A two dimensional echocardiography would most likely show
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Explanation:
A child with a harsh systolic murmur, no diastolic murmur, and an increased oxygen saturation in the right ventricle most likely has a ventricular septal defect (VSD).VSDs are congenital and are commonly located near the membranous interventricular septum. Hemodynamic consequences include the development of left to right shunts (the magnitude of the shunt being proportional to the size of the defect), which may result in equalization of systolic pressures in the two ventricles. Cardiac catheterization allows for direct visualization and measurement of the shunt and reveals increased, oxygen saturation in the right ventricle. Clinically VSD is associated with a harsh, holosystolic murmur heard more readily if there is a residual pressure gradient between the two sides. Aortic insufficiency and mitral stenosis do not generate left to right shunts and will not produce increased oxygen saturation in the right ventricle. A patent ductus arteriosus can initially cause left to right shunting, but eventually, as pulmonary vascular resistance increases, a right to left shunt may occur. Therefore, cardiac catheterization will fail to show increased oxygen saturation in the right ventricle. The murmur of a patent ductus arteriosus is not holosystolic but a continuous “machinery” murmur; it is readily distinguishable from a VSD murmur. A patent foramen ovale should not be confused with an atrial septal defect, which could account for the increased oxygen saturation on the right side but could not account for the systolic murmur. A patent foramen ovale refers to a residual, slit-like opening between the atria that is patent to a probe but not of hemodynamic. In contrast, an atrial septal defect is a much larger opening. -
Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 pointsMother is concerned that her child is not yet toilet trained. According to the mother she has been chatting with other mothers on the Internet, and their children, who are younger than this woman´s child, are already toilet trained. The physician should inform her that what is the earliest age at which toilet training is likely to be successful?
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Explanation:
Toilet training is not possible before the age of 18 months because the long nerve fibers have not yet myelinated and sphincter control is not possible. Toilet training should be completed by 4 years of age.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 pointsIn a restaurant, a 4year old girl´s parents are talking with each other and not with the child. She says “Mommy”; when the mother does not respond, intensity of the word “Mommy” increases. She begins to drop her eating utensils. When parents still do not respond, she knocks over her glass of milk. Parents then scold the child and busy themselves cleaning up the spilled milk and getting more for the child. This scenario is repeated 3 times before the parents angrily take the child from the restaurant. This scenario is an example of which type of learning?
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Explanation:
This is a case of operant conditioning, or learning by reinforcement. In this example, the child´s behavior is the operant, which is being reinforced by the parents. That is, the child wants parental attention and is rewarded by the parents only when her disruptive behavior escalates to the point at which the parents must pay attention. The parents are using a “fixed ratio” of reinforcement, since every time the child gets to the truly disruptive point, they reinforce the behavior. Classical conditioning is the type of associative learning in which a stimulus that did not originally elicit a given response now does. This occurs secondary to association of the stimulus with a behavior that previously did elicit the response. For example, a cat does not normally come to its owner if the owner rings a bell. However, if the bell is rung while the cat is eating, the cat associates the bell with food and learns to come to the owner when the bell is rung. Cognitive learning requires full attention and purposeful intent to acquire the information. Imprinting forms the basis of bonding between an infant and the mothering figure. This form of attachment is learned by association during the immediate postnatal period. Social learning involves modeling or imitation. For instance, a child learns familial values by modeling the parental example.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is the most effective initial treatment of head lice in an 8 year old child?
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Explanation:
Malathion is currently the most effective treatment for head lice and is less toxic than Lindane. Permethrin and pyrethrins are less effective than malathion, although they are acceptable alternatives. These insecticides, as well as lindane, are not recommended in children 2 years of age or younger.
Wet combing may be effective, but it is less than half as effective as malathion. Head shaving is only temporarily effective and is traumatic. Petrolatum is not proven to be effective. -
Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 pointsA 16 year old girl is brought to your office by her mother who is concerned about her daughter´s 6 month history of weight loss and anorexia. According to the girl she feels perfectly well. She is able to maintain her normal activities, including a rigorous exercise program at the university. She measures 162 cm and weighs 38 kg. Her skin is dry, and there is bilateral, painless swelling in both parotid regions. Investigations are most likely show
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Explanation:
Serum luteinizing hormone level and serum follicle-stimulating hormone is low in patients with anorexia nervosa. These hormonal alterations in the hypothalamic-pituitary axis in patients with anorexia nervosa represent adaptive and protective mechanisms for chronic starvation and weight loss.
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 pointsA 7 year old boy with occasional nose bleeds is referred to you for investigations. The most common cause of recurrent epistaxis is
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Explanation:
Nosebleeds (epistaxis) have a variety of causes, the most common of which are nose picking and injury. The cold, dry air of winter also makes nosebleeds more likely. People who take aspirin or other drugs that interfere with the blood´s ability to clot (anticoagulants) commonly develop nosebleeds. Some people get them rather often, and others rarely get them.
Bleeding usually comes from the front part of the nasal septum, which contains many blood vessels. There may be just a trickle of blood or a strong stream. Most nosebleeds are more frightening than serious. -
Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 pointsYou are asked to examine a 2 year old girl. Her father states that his daughter fell down the stairs earlier in the evening, but he does not think that she hit her head during the fall. On ocular examination there are multiple scattered retinal hemorrhages visible in the retinal periphery of each eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation:
When a baby is vigorously shaken, the head moves back and forth. This sudden whiplash motion can cause bleeding inside the head and increased pressure on the brain, causing the brain to pull apart and resulting in injury to the baby. This is known as Shaken Baby Syndrome, and is one of the leading forms of fatal child abuse. A baby´s head and neck are susceptible to head trauma because his or her muscles are not fully developed and the brain tissue is exceptionally fragile. Head trauma is the leading cause of disability among abused infants and children. Shaken Baby Syndrome occurs most frequently in infants younger than six months old, yet can occur up to the age of three. Often there are no obvious outward signs if inside injury, particularly in the head or behind the eyes. In reality, shaking a baby, if only for a few seconds, can injure the baby for life. These injuries can include brain swelling and damage; cerebral palsy; mental retardation; developmental delays: blindness; hearing loss; paralysis and death. When a child is shaken in anger and frustration, the force is multiplied five or 10 times than it would be if the child had simply tripped and fallen. -
Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 pointsA 1 year old infant is brought to the health center by his mother because of eight watery bowel movements during the past 24 hours. The infant is lethargic and somnolent. The mucous membranes are dry and the skin turgor is poor. The anterior fontanel is sunken. At his last visit 2 weeks ago, he weighed 10 kg (22 lb), today his weight is 9 kg (20 lb). His temperature is 37.2C (99.0F), pulse is 170/min and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. The most appropriate next step in management of this infant is
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Explanation:
This infant is moderately to severely dehydrated. The history of watery stools and the associated physical findings suggest a child in dire need of rehydration therapy. Dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor skin tenting, sunken fontanels and weight loss are all consistent with moderate to severe dehydration. The lethargy and somnolence suggest mite severe dehydration. Intravenous rehydration therapy, or in the case where suitable venous access cannot be obtained, interosseous therapy, is the immediate intervention in this case. The goals of therapy should include; replacement of any deficits, any ongoing losses and daily maintenance requirements.
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 pointsImiquimod (Aldara) is approved by the FDA for treatment of which condition?
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Explanation:
Since its FDA approval imiquimod has been used off-label to treat all of the conditions listed, but is approved only for treatment of external genital and perianal warts in patients 12 years of age and over.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 pointsAn infant of 2 weeks is brought to the office for a newborn visit. His mother states that the he has been a very slow eater and that he is constipated, not having had a bowel movement in 3 days. On physical examination, the infant has poor muscle tone, and enlarged tongue, and umbilical hernia, an enlarged anterior fontanelles, and hypothermia. He appears slightly jaundiced, with slightly dry skin and brittle hair. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
The signs and symptoms of congenital hypothyroidism may not be obvious, for several days or, weeks. Symptoms include physical sluggishness, constipation, large tongue, umbilical hernia, hypothermia, bradycardia, enlarged fontanelles, and persistent jaundice. Skin may be dry and scaly, and the hair may be dry, coarse, and brittle.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 pointsA 7 year old male with recurrent sinusitis has difficulty breathing through his nose. He has had chronic diarrhea and his weight is at the 5th percentile. Nasal polyps are noted in the form of grayish pale masses in both nares. No nasal purulence or odor is present. The test that you should order is
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Explanation:
This child has chronic diarrhea, recurrent sinusitis, and nasal polyps, and is underweight. Nasal polyps tend to occur more often in adult males, with the prevalence increasing in both sexes after age 50. Any child 12 years or younger who presents with nasal polyps should be suspected of having cystic fibrosis until proven otherwise. A sweat chloride test, along with a history and clinical examination, is necessary to evaluate this possibility. Nasal polyps are found in´1% of the normal population, but a full 18% of those with cystic fibrosis are afflicted. There is no association of polyps with wilson´s disease, sarcoidosis, or emphysema, so serum ceruloplasmin, angiotensin- converting, and alpha-1-antitrypsin levels would not be useful. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate likewise would yield limited, information.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 pointsNot used in the treatment of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis pain can develop in kid´s aged 1-16 years of age. Common presentations include swelling, red and warm joints. The knee and wrist joints are the most commonly affected. Initial lab workup involves: CBC, ESR, RF and ANA.
Treatment is with a combination of medication, physical therapy, and exercise. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs, like ibuprofen are used most commonly. Except for severe systemic disease, systemic corticosteroids can usually be avoided. When necessary, the lowest possible dose is used (eg, oral prednisone) Methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine are useful DMARDs for polyarticular disease. Physical therapy, exercises, splints, and other supportive measures help prevent flexion contractures. -
Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 pointsA child presents with the following rash:
You diagnose her with impetigo. The most appropriate treatment for this is which one of the following?Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Impetigo typically presents as clusters of vesicles or pustules that rupture and develop a honey-colored crust (exudate from the lesion base) over the lesions. Treatment for localized disease is topical mupirocin. Oral such as dicloxacillin or cephalexin are also used. -
Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 pointsThe physicians counseling a 5 year old child about the death of a loved one should keep in mind that, children in this age group
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Explanation:
Children from the ages of 2 to 6 often believe they are somehow responsible for the death of a loved one. The emotional pain may be so intense that the child may react by denying the death, or may somehow feel that the death is reversible. If children wish to attend a funeral, or if their parents want them to, they should be accompanied by an adult who can provide comfort and support. Telling a child the loved one is asleep or that he or she “went away” usually creates false hopes for return, or it may foster a sleep phobia.
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 pointsA child seen to have a retinal hemorrhage on opthalmoscope exam. Physical exam shows anterior chest bruises and dilated sutures on the skull. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
This is a case of physical abuse. Infants who are shaken may have shaken baby (shaken impact) syndrome. This syndrome is caused by violent shaking, often followed by throwing the infant. Infants who are shaken may have no visible signs of injury and may appear to be sleeping deeply. This sleepiness is due to brain damage and swelling, which may result from bleeding between the brain and skull (subdural hemorrhage). Infants may also have bleeding in the retina (retinal hemorrhage) at the back of the eye. Ribs and other bones may be broken.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 pointsA 12 year old boy states that he is growing breasts and that they hurt. He has been growing taller this past year. No other complaints are present. On physical examination you note some acne on his face, his testes and phallus are appropriate for age, and he has fine sparse pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
Normal puberty is a period in a boy´s life between the ages of 13-18 (may occur as early as 8) in which his body starts to grow and mature. These changes are the result of chemicals known as hormones. In boys undergoing puberty, testosterone is the hormone that is responsible for the changes that will transform them physically and psychologically into an adult male.
Body changes include: growing taller, growing body hair, growing broader shoulders, muscles grow bigger and stronger, the hands and feet grow larger, the ears enlarge, pimples or zits (acne) may develop, the voice changes and becomes deeper. In addition penis size increases, enlargement of the testicles (may even be sensitive), temporarily enlarged and painful breasts and experiencing more erections. -
Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 pointsA 15 year old girl who is at Tanner stage 3 is concerned because she has still not had her first menses. What is the most appropriate management at this?
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Explanation:
Tanner stages are as follows:
Female Breast
Stage 1 no breast tissue with flat areola
Stage 2 breasts budding with widening of the areola
Stage 3 larger and more elevated breasts extending beyond the areola.
Stage 4 larger and even more elevated breasts. Areola and nipple projecting from the breast contous
Stage 5 Adult sizes with nipple projecting above areola
Male and female pubic hair
Stage 1 none
Stage 2 small amount of long hair at base of male scrotum or female labia majora.
Stage 3 moderate amount of curly and coarser hair extending outwards
Stage 4 resembles adult hair but does not extend to inner surface of thigh
Stage 5 adult type and quantity extending to the medical thigh surface
Since this patient is developing and has sexual characteristics, she may need to wait a little longer for menarche. Reassurance is appropriate at this time. The average age for menarche is 12, but can vary between 9 and 16. -
Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 pointsA 13 year old boy develops acute pain in his right testicle while playing hockey. A very tender mass in the right scrotum with reddening of the overlying skin is revealed on examination. Urinalysis reveals 1-3 white blood cells and 0-2 red blood cells per high power field. What is the likely diagnosis?
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Explanation:
Testicular torsion is an emergency condition due to rotation of the testis and consequent strangulation of its blood supply. Symptoms are acute scrotal pain and swelling, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is based on physical examination and confirmed by color Doppler. Treatment is immediate manual detorsion followed by surgical intervention.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 pointsYou discover labial adhesions in a 9 month old female with a 5-mm opening anteriorly during a routine well child examination. True statement regarding this condition is
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Explanation:
The exact cause of labial adhesions is unknown. However, since it rarely occurs in neonates and responds to estrogen therapy, a hypoestrogenic state is felt to be a contributing factor. The lesion results from fusion of the labia minora. There is a 20%-40% incidence of recurrent urinary tract infections in these patients. The treatment of choice is 2-8 weeks of local treatment with estrogen cream. Oral estrogens are not indicated and may cause a harmful hyperestrogenic state, with female virilization features. Because of the possibility of pain, recurrence, and potential scarring, surgical treatment is recommended only if medical treatment is unsuccessful.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 pointsA 9 year old boy is brought to the hospital with a history of fall from his bike. He fainted and is now complaining of abdominal pain and thirst. General abdominal tenderness and rebound tenderness is present. Approximately 4 hours after the accident, the white blood count is 20 x 10^9/L and the hemoglobin is 80 g/L. The most likely diagnosis is
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Splenic rupture generally results from blunt abdominal trauma. Significant impact (eg, motor vehicle collision) can rupture a normal spleen.
Rupture of the splenic capsule produces marked hemorrhage into the peritoneal cavity. The manifestations, including hemorrhagic shock, abdominal pain, and distention, are usually clinically obvious. However, splenic trauma can also produce a subcapsular hematoma, which may not rupture until hours or even months after the injury.
Rupture is generally preceded by left upper quadrant abdominal pain. Splenic rupture should be suspected in patients with blunt abdominal trauma and hemorrhagic shock or left upper quadrant pain (which sometimes radiates to the shoulder); patients with unexplained left upper quadrant pain, particularly if there is evidence of hypovolemia or shock, should be asked about recent trauma. The diagnosis is confirmed by CT scan (in the stable patient), ultrasound, or peritoneal lavage (in the unstable patient).
Treatment has traditionally been splenectomy. However, splenectomy should be avoided if possible, particularly in children, to avoid the resulting permanent susceptibility to bacterial infections. In this case, treatment is transfusion as needed. -
Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 pointsTwo young boys are playing at a daycare center. One holds a ball on top of some blocks that the other child has placed on the floor. The second child helps steady the blocks, the first child then lets go of the ball, knocking the blocks down to the floor. They watch and then repeat the process. The ages of these children are
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Explanation:
The capacity for cooperative play generally does not begin much before the age of 4. Prior to this time (24-30 months) children may play in a parallel fashion, but without real interaction.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 pointsA 7 year old girl presents with tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, dilation of the pupils, and urinary retention. An empty pills bottle prescribed for her mother is found near her. Her mother is likely to be treated for which of the following?
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Explanation:
These are symptoms consistent with an overdose of an anticholinergic agent such as a tricyclic antidepressant. No agents routinely used for the treatment of diabetes (A), hypertension (B), acute allergies (C), or osteoporosis (E) would produce such a syndrome.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 pointsA 3 year old girl is brought to the physician for a well child examination. She was born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. She rides tricycle, can build a tower of 8 blocks, and speaks in sentences. An accurate assessment of this patient´s development is
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Explanation:
The correct answer is A. This patient has normal developmental milestones. A 3-year-old child should be able to ride a tricycle, balance each foot for 1 second, build a tower of 8 blocks imitate a vertical line and speak with almost understandable sentences. This patient is not delayed in any area making choices B, C, D, and E incorrect. Common developmental milestones are: Newborn- regard faces, suckle, Moro, and grasp reflexes, 6 month old, babbles sits alone passes a cube 12 months- says 1-2 words begins to walk waves bye-bye 424 months- combines words can build a tower of4-6 cubes kicks a ball 3 years- combines words to form almost understandable sentences rides a tricycle builds a T tower of 8 cubes
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 pointsWhich tooth appears first and at which average age?
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Explanation:
The lower central incisor is most frequently the first tooth to erupt. The average age of eruption of this tooth is at six months. The lower lateral incisor erupts at seven months and the upper central incisor erupts at seven and a half months.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 pointsA 13 year old boy presents with severe self destructive behavior such as biting of the fingers, lips, and buccal mucosa. He is mentally retarded and exhibits signs of spasticity and choreoathetosis. Laboratory investigations reveal an elevated uric acid level. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
This patient exhibits signs of self-mutilation, which is a classic sign of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. This is a disorder of purine metabolism where there is deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase activity and subsequent hyperuricemia. Spasticity, mental retardation and compulsive self destructive behavior are classic symptoms. This disorder is common in males. Huntington´s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by gait spasticity, purposeless movements, and dysarthria. There is neuronal loss in the striatum of the brain. Juvenile Huntington´s disease usually presents with dementia and parkinsonism, which this patient does not have. Autistic children also behave in a self-destructive pattern, but there is a normal uric acid level and an absence of chorea. Hyperthyroid patients would present with heat intolerance, tachycardia, and hyperreflexia. The thyroxine levels would be elevated, not the urate levels. Patients with xanthinuria have a deficiency of xanthine oxidase. As a result of this defect, the uric acid level is very low, not high. Most of the patients with this deficiency, inherited as an autosomal recessive trait, are asymptomatic. -
Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 pointsWhich is the youngest age at which the social smile is likely to be present in a child?
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Explanation:
The social smile is likely to develop between five-eight weeks of age. It is a marker of the infant´s responsiveness and attachment to another individual.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 pointsA 6 month old infant experiences peripheral sensory neuropathy. Toxicity of which one of the following vitamins should be included in the differential diagnosis?
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Explanation:
Pyridoxine toxicity, while very rare, is associated with peripheral sensory neuropathy. Vitamin E toxicity may cause a necrotizing enterocolitis and hepatitis in children. Vitamin K toxicity although uncommon, may cause vomiting and hemolysis, as well as albuminuria and hemoglobinuria. Vitamin D toxicity is associated with hypercalcemia, as well as constipation, and sometimes nephrocalcinosis. Pantothenic acid toxicity is associated with diarrhea.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 pointsAll healthy children should NOT be immunized with which of the following?
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Explanation:
Healthy children should receive all of the above immunizations except influenza, because they are not at increased risk for the latter.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 pointsAt which of the following age a child will be begin to develop impulse control?
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Explanation:
Impulse control typically develops between six and nine months of age.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 pointsA major theme of the second year of life is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
During the second year of life, the child learns to differentiate between him or herself and his or her primary caregiver. The genitals become the focus of pleasure during the preschool years, which occurs between two and a half and six years of age. Children at two years of age play alongside each other in what is known as parallel play, rather than cooperative play, which develops around the age of four The formation of a conscience begins by the end of the preschool years and is completed during the school age years, which is between seven to eleven years. At seven to eleven years of age, the child also develops the ability to perform complex motor tasks.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 pointsA girl when prone is able to hold her chin up for a prolonged period of time so that the plane of her face is at an angle of 45- 90 degrees from the couch. She bears weight on her forearms and has only moderate head lag when pulled to sitting position from supine. She has no grasp reflex and vocalizes and squeals with pleasure. Her most likely age is
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Explanation:
The characteristics given in the question most closely describe a girl at 12 weeks of age. At 16 weeks of age the child is usually able to hold his/her head up constantly when in a sitting position, and when prone, is likely to hold his/her head and chest up so the plane of the face is 90 degrees to the couch. The grasp reflex, which would be present at 5 weeks of age, usually disappears at 12 weeks of age.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 pointsA child who is able to walk up a flight of stairs without assistance and is able to kick a ball, most likely belongs to which one of the following age group?
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Explanation:
A child will be able to kick a ball or walk up a flight of stairs without assistance at the age of two years.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 pointsBy which one of the following age groups is the fear of imaginary dragons and ghosts is most likely to be felt?
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Explanation:
Children between the ages of two and six years are afraid of figments of their imagination (e.g., the bogeyman), as well as animals and the dark. Children less than one year of age are most often scared of loud noises, heights, and lack of physical support. Children one year of age typically begin to experience stranger anxiety and separation anxiety Children who are elementary school age are more afraid of injuring themselves physically or losing a loved one, such as a parent. Adolescents and teens are scared of failing or not being accepted socially
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 pointsWhat is the most appropriate management for a 3 year old boy with stuttering?
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Explanation:
The first signs of stuttering tend to appear when a child is about 18 to 24 months old and starting to put words together to form sentences. To parents, the stuttering may be upsetting and frustrating, but it is natural for kids to do some stuttering at this stage of development. A child may stutter for a few weeks or several months, and the stuttering may be sporadic. For most kids who begin stuttering before the age of 5, the stuttering eventually goes away without any need for intervention such as speech or language therapy, However, if the child´s stuttering is frequent, continues to get worse, and is accompanied by body or facial movements, it´s a good idea for a speech- language therapist to evaluate your child before he or she is 3 years old.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 pointsA 13 year old boy is brought to the clinic because of a several month history of strange behavior. According to his mother, the boy occasionally will start staring and not respond. He will also have tears in his eyes. These episodes last several seconds and he then returns to his baseline. No history of head trauma is present and is not taking any medications. The most appropriate treatment is
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Explanation:
The patient is having absence or petit mal seizures, and the drug of choice is ethosuximide or valproic acid. Diazepam is effective in treating status epilepticus but is not used in treating petit mal seizures. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and would not be of benefit in treating this illness. Phenobarbital and Phenytoin are anti convulsants, but are not used for absence seizures.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 pointsA 10 year old boy develops frost bit on his fingers while playing outside in cold weather. What is the most appropriate treatment for this?
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Explanation:
When exposed to very cold temperatures, skin and underlying tissues may freeze, resulting in frostbite. The areas most likely to be affected by frostbite are the hands, feet, nose and ears. You can identify frostbite by the hard, pale and cold quality of skin that has been exposed to the cold. As the area thaws, the flesh becomes red and painful.
If fingers, ears or other areas suffer frostbite: warm your hands by tucking them under your arms. If your nose, ears or face is frostbitten, warm the area by covering it with dry, gloved hands.
If there´s any chance of refreezing, don´t thaw out the affected areas. If they´re already thawed out, wrap them up so they don´t refreeze.
Get emergency medical help if numbness remains during warming. If you can´t get help immediately, warm severely frostbitten hands or feet in warm, not hot, water. You can warm other frostbitten areas, such as your nose, cheeks or ears, by covering them with your warm hands or by applying warm cloths. -
Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 pointsA 6 year old girl presents to the ER with acute onset of muscle weakness. Her muscle weakness started in her legs yesterday and became worse today and progressed to the trunk and both arms. She was also complaining difficulty of breathing earlier today. She has been otherwise healthy but had a common cold about 10 days ago. On examination, her respirations are 25/min and shallow. She has profound muscle weakness in her lower extremities, and moderate weakness in her upper extremities. Her deep tendon reflexes are absent. A lumbar puncture show increased protein concentration. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
The girl in this clinical vignette has classic Guillain-Barré syndrome, also known as acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP). It is an acute illness characterized by rapid demyelination of peripheral nerves. A symmetric ascending weakness progresses rapidly. In this case, the involvement of the respiratory muscles is potentially life threatening. Sensory deficit, involvement of facial musculature, and autonomic insufficiency may occasionally happen. Weakness usually follows a nonspecific viral infection by about 7-14 days. Lumbar puncture shows elevation of protein concentration in the-absence of pleocytosis in the CSF. Diagnosis is made by nerve conduction studies, which will show demyelination. Treatment involves plasmapheresis or gamma-globulin infusion. Respiratory failure must be aggressively managed with adequate respiratory support. Children with this syndrome have a very good prognosis; full recovery is usually the, rule. A-few may be left with some residual weakness. -
Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 pointsA one year old girl presents to the ER. She has been listless for the past 2 days and has eaten very little other than juice and milk. Her temperature is 40 degrees Celsius rectally. Her tympanic membranes are normal. Her throat is mildly erythematous, with no exudate. A CBC is drawn and her WBC is 20 x 10^9/L, with a high neutrophil count. All other investigations are normal. Not appropriate to give at this time is which of the following medication?
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Explanation:
Reye´s syndrome, a deadly disease, strikes swiftly and can attack any child or adult without warning. All body organs are affected, with the liver and brain suffering most seriously. While the cause and cure remain unknown, research has established a link between Reye´s syndrome and the use of aspirin and other salicylate-containing medications. Therefore aspirin should not be given to a child with an acute illness.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 pointsA 6 year old girl with hypogammaglobulinemia and absent immunoglobulin A (IgA) receives infusions of immune globulin monthly. Shortly after her most recent infusion began, she developed hypotension, wheezing, and several urticarial lesions. The best explanation for her reaction is
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Explanation:
Anaphylaxis is triggered the same way other allergies are: the immune system, which serves as the body´s defense against potentially dangerous substances such as germs, overreacts to a harmless substance (an allergen) and in that process can damage the body. As part of the normal immune response, proteins called antibodies are produced that can detect and help destroy “invaders” in the body. A specific antibody called Immunoglobulin E, or IgE, is responsible for the adverse reactions in people with allergies.
When allergens first enter the body of a person predisposed to allergies, the immune system produces the allergen-specific IgE antibodies. The IgE antibodies attach themselves to the surface of cells called mast cells. The next time that allergic individual comes into contact with the allergen; the IgE identifies it and quickly initiates the release of chemicals, such as histamine, from the mast cells. These potent chemicals cause the symptoms seen in allergic reactions and anaphylaxis. -
Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 pointsOut of the following, what predisposes infants to chronic otitis media?
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Explanation:
Chronic otitis media is a long-standing infection of the middle ear. Some factors that increase a child´s risk for middle ear infections include crowded living or daycare conditions, exposure to second-hand smoke, respiratory illnesses, close contact with siblings who have colds or ear infections, having a cleft palate, allergies that cause congestion on a chronic basis.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 pointsA 24 year mother is discharged from the hospital with her baby 24 hours after an uncomplicated labor and delivery. The baby was delivered at term, and this is her first child. Her mother calls the next day because she is concerned that the baby “looks a little orange”. The bilirubin level that prompts phototherapy is
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Explanation:
Bilirubin levels >17 mg/dL in full-term infants are considered pathologic rather physiologic. In one study, infants with bilirubin concentrating over 21 mg/dL at 18-72 hours after birth had a 40% probability of severe hyperbilirubinemia developing later on. The Academy of Pediatrics recommends initiating phototherapy for bilirubin levels based on the infant´s, age: 15 mg/dL at 25-48 hours, 18 mg/dL at 49-72 hours, and 20 mg/dL at 72 hours or more.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 pointsA 6 year old boy has axillary freckling, several firm subcutaneous masses on both arms and seven light-brown macules on his trunk which are greater than 1.5 cm.
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Explanation:
Neurofibromatosis is an autosomal dominant disorder, producing tumors along the course of nerves and occasionally resulting in marked soft tissue or bony deformity. In > 90%, characteristic skin lesions are apparent at birth or develop during infancy. Lesions are medium-brown (café-au-lait), freckle-like macules, distributed most commonly over the trunk, pelvis, and flexor creases of elbows and knees. During late childhood, flesh-colored cutaneous tumors of various sizes and shapes appear, ranging in number from several to thousands. Diagnosis is clinical. There is no specific treatment, but tumors can be removed surgically.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 pointsAn 8 year old black boy comes in with an asymptomatic erythematous eruption characterized by oval patches with collarette scaling. It is distributed as a “Christmas tree” pattern on the back. According to father there was originally one lesion on the abdomen a few weeks prior. The most likely has which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Pityriasis rosea (PR) is a condition that classically begins with a single, primary, 2- to 10-cm “herald” patch that appears on the trunk or proximal limbs. A general centripetal eruption of 0.5- to 2-cm rose-or fawn-colored oval papules and plaques follows within 7 to 14 days. The lesions have a scaly, slightly raised border (collarette) and resemble ringworm (tinea corporis). Most patients itch, occasionally severely. Papules may dominate with little or no scaling in blacks, children, and pregnant women: the rose or fawn color is not as evident in blacks; blacks also more commonly have inverse PR (lesions in the axillae or groin that spread centrifugally). Classically, lesions orient along skin lines, giving PR a Christmas tree- like distribution when multiple lesions appear on the back. A prodrome of malaise and headache precedes the lesions in a minority of patients. Diagnosis is based on clinical appearance and distribution.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 pointsA 16 year old girl comes for a pre-participation evaluation for sports, and she asks for advice about the treatment of acne. Few inflammatory papules are present on her face. No nodules are noted. She has not tried any over-the-counter acne treatments. The first-line therapy considered for this condition is which of the following?
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Explanation:
The Academy of Dermatology grades acne as mild, moderate, and severe. Mild acne is limited to a few to several papules and pustules without any nodules. Patients with moderate acne have several to many papules and pustules with a few to several nodules. Patients with severe acne have many or extensive papules, pustules, and nodules.
The patient has mild acne according to the Academy of Dermatology classification scheme. Topical treatments including benzoyl peroxide, retinoids, and topical antibiotics are useful first-line agents in mild acne. Topical sulfacetamide is not considered first-line therapy for mild acne. Oral antibiotics are used in mild acne where there is inadequate response to topical agents and as first-line therapy in more severe acne. Caution must be used to avoid tetracycline in pregnant females. Oral isotretinoin is used in severe nodular acne, but also must be used with extreme caution in females who may become pregnant. Special registration is required by physicians who use isotretinoin, because of its teratogenicity. -
Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 pointsA 5 year old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents because of a swollen pinna. Father reports that the boy fell off his tricycle in a playground. On physical examination the child´s left ear is severely edematous and discolored. Parents are concerned for the child because this is his third emergency department visit in the past 6 months. When discussing these concerns and the need for further evaluation with the parents, they become angry and want to take the child home now. The most appropriate at this time would be to
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Explanation:
Most states have laws that mandate that a clinician who suspects physical or sexual abuse must act immediately, separating the child from the parents if necessary. Discharge to another relative or neighbor will not prevent the abusing parent from retrieving the child and inflicting further abuse. Foster care placement can only be applied for after there is proof of physical abuse. If your suspicions of abuse are high, do not send the child home with the parents under any circumstances.
Again, sending the child home, even with an impending social work evaluation, leaves the child open for continued abuse. When angered, the abusing parent may inflict greater injury after a quiescent phase, resulting in death of the child. In a possible abuse case, the physician should take steps to both protect the child and investigate further. -
Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 pointsA 5-year-old child is being treated for severe asthma. After surviving a series of severe exacerbations while on several different medications, the child is placed on a new, more expensive medication. The new medication is very effective and no further exacerbations are reported in the subsequent six months. At this point, this child´s parents come to see the pediatrician, and bring a notice that they have received from their insurance company. According to the notice the insurance will cover the cost of a different, cheaper medication that it characterizes as “standard of care,” but will only cover a fraction of the cost of the new medication. The parents say that they cannot afford the cost of the new medication on their own and ask the physician what they should do. When the pediatrician contacts the insurance company personally, and argues that the new medication should be covered, she is told that the review process will take several months. What action is most appropriate to be undertaken at this point by the pediatrician?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is C. If the physician truly believes that the current medication is the best for the child, then he must do all he can to see that the patient has access to this treatment if cost is the barrier, and the physician can find some way to waive the cost, then this is the obvious course of action. Remember that traditionally, doctors and hospitals provide a certain amount of care without charging a fee. The guiding goal must be care not cost. Admitting the child (choice A) is a costly alternative when the child is already taking an effective medication. Simply put, if the child is maintained on the current medication, hospitalization is not warranted.
While it might be personally satisfying to pressure the insurance company (choices B and D) and might help children in the broader society´ eventually, it does nothing to help the physician´s current patient.
This question is not decided on the basis of legal opinion (choice E) but on the basis of clinical judgment. If the current medication is working and the alternative covered by the insurance company is unproven, then every´ effort must be made to maintain the proven treatment. This option transforms a focus on a child´s care to a media event (choice F). The child´s confidentiality´ and the parent´s privacy are at risk. The physician here has lost focus. The goal is to treat the child, not harness the media to change the world.
The child has already been placed on a variety of medications, none of which had the same efficacy as the one he is currently taking. Allowing the insurance company to override or even influence the physician´s clinical judgment is ethically questionable and professionally unacceptable. The child´s history suggests that putting the child on the medication covered by the insurance company places the child at an unacceptable risk (choice G) . -
Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 pointsA 14 year old boy presents with a history of chronic sinusitis, bronchitis, and recurrent otitis media. On physical examination, his nasal mucosa is pale and swollen with mucopurulent secretions. Ear examination also reveals a retracted tympanic membrane with absent mobility and a middle ear effusion. A chloride sweat test is performed twice and is normal on both attempts. Amore careful analysis of the boy´s sperm reveals immotile spermatozoa. The genetic disease most likely involves which of the following types of protein?
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Explanation:
Although the presentation is reminiscent of cystic fibrosis, the negative sweat chloride test suggests an alternate etiology. Kartagener syndrome is a collection of genetic illnesses characterized by immobile cilia due to defects in microtubules. As a result, defects in mucociliary clearance lead to chronic upper and lower respiratory tract disease and males demonstrate infertile it secondary to immotile spermatozoa. Microtubules are cytoskeletal proteins involved in cell movement (e.g., flagella of sperms) or intra cellular transport. Chaperones are involved in protein folding, and their mutations do not produce symptoms to Kartagener syndrome. Mutations in membrane channels such as the chloride channel protein for cystic fibrosis can lead to a similar clinical presentation. Mutations in secreted hormones can lead to a variety of other illnesses that are unlike the presentation shown here. Mutations in transcription factors cause various diseases unrelated to the clinical symptoms presented here. -
Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 pointsA child should have first developed the ability to copy a rectangular shape by which of the following well child visit?
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Explanation:
At the age of five years, approximately the time most children enter kindergarten, children develop the ability to copy rectangles. Prior to this age, they generally cannot perform such an act.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 pointsAt 10 months of age an infant is likely to display which one of the following reflexes?
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Explanation:
Babinski´s reflex is normally present at birth and lasts until 12 months of age. The palmar grasp reflex, startle reflex and tonic neck reflex are likely to disappear by the age of four months. The walking reflex disappears in three to eight weeks.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 pointsA 4 month old infant begins to vomit uncontrollably. Infant´s intracranial pressure is highly increased. Toxicity of which one of the following substances should be included in the differential diagnosis?
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Explanation:
Vitamin A toxicity may cause pseudotumor cerebri, or retching associated with a rise in intracranial pressure. Although thiamin toxicity is very rare, the potential adverse effects include an anaphylactic response and/or respiratory depression. There are no significant toxicities associated with biotin overdose. Niacin overdose may cause anaphylaxis due to histamine release; also, cholestatic jaundice, cutaneous vasodilation, and cardiac arrhythmias may arise. Finally, vitamin C overdose may cause a decrease in copper absorption or a rise in the excretion of oxalic acid.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 pointsInfant that is NOT considered at high risk for the development of a hearing deficit is
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Explanation:
Infants treated with aminoglycosides or other ototoxic drugs may be at high risk for developing hearing deficits. Similarly infants with infections such as congenital rubella or meningitis can also develop hearing problems. Low birth weight infants are also at high risk. However, infants with congenital syphilis typically have visual problems, not hearing problems
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 pointsA child should have first developed the ability to draw a man with six separable parts by which of the following well baby office visit?
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Explanation:
A child first develops the ability to draw a man with six separable parts-a stick figure-at approximately the age of five. None of the other ages correspond to the first development of this ability.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 pointsIncorrect statement regarding the normal course of development is:
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The sequence of development is the same for all children, while the rate of development varies from child to child. Development is dependent on the myelination of nerves in the CNS and the PNS. The direction of development is always from head to toe. For example, the first step in the development of locomotion is the utilization of neck muscle for the development of head control. Only then do the spinal muscles develop coordination so the baby can sit straight up. Also, the baby gains control over his/her arms before his/her legs, and crawling is often dominated first by the effort of arms followed by that of legs. Option E is also correct-an example is the necessary disappearance of the reciprocal kick (the rhythmic kicking of the legs) when walking develops.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement is FALSE regarding obese children?
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Explanation:
Obese children are usually tall for their age in the early years due to overactivity of the adrenocortical gland. Many display premature fusing of the epiphyses, which halts growth so that most are shorter for their age in the later years. Also, many are especially susceptible to respiratory infections or wheezing.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 pointsA 7 year old girl presents with a bilateral loss of temperature sensation and pin prick sensation with flaccid weakness. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
Anterior commissure syndrome, which is often caused by syringomyelia, presents with bilateral loss of temperature sensation and pin prick sensations. There may or may not be an associated flaccid weakness.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 pointsDarkness is a major cause of anxiety most often in which one of the following age group children?
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Explanation:
Children between the ages of two and six years are afraid of figments of their imagination (e.g., the bogeyman), as well as animals and the dark. Children less than one year of age are most often scared of loud noises, heights, and lack of physical support. Children one year of age typically begin to experience stranger anxiety and separation anxiety. Children who are elementary school age are more afraid of injuring themselves physically or losing a loved one, such as a parent. Adolescents and teens are scared of failing or not being accepted socially.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 pointsWhat is the age of a boy who has full head control is able to grasp objects deliberately, and smiles at the image of himself in the mirror?
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Explanation:
Full head control is usually not gained until the age of twenty weeks. Also, at that age, the child is usually able to grasp objects deliberately and smile at his/her image in the mirror.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 pointsRisk taking without regard for the consequences becomes the hallmark of a child´s activity at which one of the following age?
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Explanation:
A child typically begins initiating risky behavior without full regard for the consequences during the school age years.
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 pointsVitamin that does not have any significant toxic findings in children is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
There are no significant toxicities associated with biotin overdose. Although thiamin toxicity is very rare, the potential adverse effects include an anaphylactic response and/or respiratory depression. Vitamin A toxicity may cause pseudotumor cerebri, or retching associated with a rise in intracranial pressure. Niacin overdose may cause anaphylaxis due to histamine release; also, cholestatic jaundice, cutaneous vasodilation, and cardiac arrhythmias may arise. Finally vitamin C overdose may cause a decrease in copper absorption or a rise in the excretion of oxalic acid.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 pointsSensory motor intelligence typically develops in an infant at which one of the following ages?
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Explanation:
The development of sensory motor intelligence typically begins at birth and develops to about two years, when the development of preoperational intelligence begins.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 pointsAn infant aged 7 months is found to have hemolytic anemia. Which vitamin toxicity may be suspected in this infant?
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Explanation:
Vitamin K toxicity, although uncommon, may cause vomiting and hemolysis, as well as albuminuria and hemoglobinuria. Vitamin E toxicity may cause a necrotizing enterocolitis and hepatitis in children. Vitamin D toxicity is associated with hypercalcemia, as well as constipation, and sometimes nephrocalcinosis. Pantothenic acid toxicity is associated with diarrhea. Pyridoxine toxicity, while very rare, is associated with peripheral sensory neuropathy
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 pointsA 6 week old infant is brought to the pediatrician by the mother because she is concerned that her child is not babbling in response to her stimulation. The most appropriate diagnosis is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
This infant is within normal limits. Infants do not begin to vocalize in the form of babbling, particularly in response to their mother´s vocalizations, until about 8 weeks of age. The mother´s question and concern is probably secondary to lack of experience and a bit of insecurity about her mothering skills and aptitude. There is no evidence that this child is pulling away from human contact (autism), not responding to noises or visual cues in the environment, or lacking other developmental milestones (mental retardation indices in infants).
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 pointsA child is brought for a well child visit. She is healthy and physical exam is unremarkable. She is up to date on her immunizations. Further evaluation reveals that she understands that the volume of a liquid poured out of a narrow glass remains the same when poured into a wider glass. She is at which of Piaget´s stages of intellectual development?
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Explanation:
The concrete operational period (ages 7-11 years) is defined by the child´s awareness of the conservation of volume, which demonstrates that the child is able to reason in a logical way in terms of the physical world. Note that the child does not develop understanding of abstract concepts until he or she has reached the formal operational stage, at age 11 to adulthood. The preoperational stage, ages 2 to 7 years, is associated with significant language development. However, the child has not yet developed the ability to take the perspective of others; thus, the child´s thinking tends to remain egocentric. The sensorimotor stage corresponds to ages 0 to 2 years and is characterized by the infant developing increasingly sophisticated sensorimotor skills and behavior patterns.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 pointsA 12 month old child presents for routine vaccination in your office. His mother tells you that 2 weeks ago, he tried a small amount of scrambled eggs and developed hives, wheezing and swelling. He was treated in the emergency room. Which of the following would you be particularly concerned that he may react to?
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Explanation:
Since MMR vaccine is prepared in chick embryo cell culture, there has been some concern in the past that it posed a risk to children with egg. In the past it was recommended that skin testing such children to MMR vaccine and administering gradually increasing doses of vaccine if the skin tests were positive.
Subsequent studies have shown that the one dose administration of MMR vaccine to egg-allergic patients is quite safe, even in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to egg. Studies have also shown that patients with of MMR vaccine. Anaphylactic reactions have occasionally been reported after MMR vaccination in patients without egg allergy, suggesting that reactions may occur to other components besides egg protein. Neomycin and gelatin have been suspected in some of these reactions.
The current guidelines state that MMR vaccine be given in one does to all patients with egg allergy. It is recommended that patients be closely observed for at least 90 minutes after the injection in an office or clinic setting equipped to treat allergic reactions. -
Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 pointsThe incidence of Down syndrome in children born to women aged less than 30 years is approximately which of the following?
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Explanation:
The incidence is roughly 1 in 1200 births for women less than 30 and this incidence can rise to 1 in 60 by the age of 42.
Maternal age also affects the incidence of hydrocephalus, anencephaly and other chromosomal disorders. -
Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 pointsA 6 month old baby has mild inspiratory stridor for the last 2 months. The most likely cause of this is
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Explanation:
Laryngomalacia is the most com on cause of chronic stridor in children younger than two years. It has a male-to-female ratio of approximately 2:1. The condition is due to an intrinsic defect or delayed maturation of supporting structures of the larynx. The airway is partially obstructed during inspiration by the prolapse of the flaccid epiglottis, arytenoids and aryepiglottic folds. The inspiratory stridor is usually worse when the child is in a supine position, when crying or agitated, or when an upper respiratory tract infection occurs.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 pointsA 20 month old female is brought to your office by her parents because she has lost consciousness twice recently. Two episodes were described by them where the child was crying vigorously then turned purple and passed out. No history of head trauma is present and no family history of seizures or cardiac problems. The episodes are not associated with fever or other symptoms. Physical examination of the child is normal. The most appropriate at this point is
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Explanation:
The parents are describing classic breath-holding spells. These are a form of autonomic syncope frequently misdiagnosed as seizures. They occur in early childhood and infancy. They can be of two forms: cyanotic, as described here, and pallid. The cyanotic form usually occurs after vigorous crying, while the pallid form commonly occurs after a sudden fright or minor injury. The history of a prodrome of injury, vigorous crying, or sudden fright is key to distinguishing a breath-holding spell from a seizure. Parents can be reassured that no brain damage occurs and, in the presence of a classic history, no further workup is necessary. An EKG and chest radiograph would be indicated if the history or examination suggested cardiac syncope. Blood testing would be indicated if-the history suggested orthostatic hypotension or diabetes. A head CT scan would be indicated in the evaluation of seizures. -
Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 pointsA 12 year old boy is brought to you by his mother for difficulty in learning, lagging behind in school, fatigue and slow growth. The most appropriate diagnosis is
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Explanation:
Hypothyroidism can affect all ages. In children the symptoms are fatigue, increased sensitivity to cold, fatigue, constipation, forgetfulness, decreased appetite, growth changes, depression and poor mental development. A detailed physical exam should be done on such patients looking possible physical findings which include a puffy face, weight changes, pain, stiffness or swelling in joints, abnormal sexual development, large protruding tongue, yellowing of the skin & whites of eyes and delayed development of permanent teeth. Lab tests are TSH and Free T4 levels. Treatment for hypothyroidism is with thyroid replaced (Synthroid).
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 pointsA 3 year old girl has a history of low-grade fever, “raspy” cough, and clear rhinorrhea for 3 days. She is brought to the emergency room when she begins to develop difficulty breathing. On physical examination her vital signs include a temperature of 39.7°C, a pulse of 160 beats per minute, and respirations of 36 breaths per minute. Bilateral rhonchi, wheezing, and some mild stridor is present on auscultation. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis) is acute inflammation of the upper and lower respiratory tracts caused most commonly by parainfluenza virus type 1 infection. It is characterized by a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. Diagnosis is usually obvious clinically but can be made by anteroposterior neck x- ray.
Treatment is antipyretics, hydration, nebulized racemic epinephrine, and corticosteroids. Prognosis is excellent. -
Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 pointsThe false statement regarding the pertussis vaccine is
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Explanation:
Although serious systemic adverse events such as hypotonic-hyporesponsive episodes can still occur, they are much less common than with DTPw. Pertussis vaccine does not cause infantile spasms, epilepsy or sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Vaccine-induced fever may occasionally lead to a febrile convulsion, though much less commonly with DTPa than with DTPw.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 pointsWhenever a 3 year old child starts to whine her mother gives her a cookie. In behavioral terms, she is using which of the following?
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Explanation:
This situation illustrates a common problem in the behavioral management of children, namely positive reinforcement or reward for a negative or undesirable behavior. By giving the child a cookie the mother is actually increasing the likelihood that the child will whine. Putting a child in time-out for whining would be an example of negative reinforcement. Letting the child continue to whine by ignoring the behavior is termed extinction. Bonding is not a term used in behavioral management, but it describes that affectional relationship between parents and infants. Bonding is not a term used in behavioral management, but it describes the affectional relationship between parents and infants. Bonding occurs rapidly and shortly after birth and reflects the feelings of the parents toward a newborn *unidirectional).
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 pointsAt what age children typically manifest anxiety toward strangers?
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Explanation:
At 3-4 months of age, a normal term baby will smile at almost anyone. By 9 months of age, there is a developmentally normal anxiety over separation from the mother (Or primary care giver), as well as anxiety at the sight of an unfamiliar face, Coincident with the increased mobility gained by walking (usually at 12-15 months of age), these anxieties normally abate.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 pointsA healthy 7 year old boy was bitten on the cheek 1 hour ago by a neighbor´s dog. On examination you find a jagged laceration about 2 cm long that extend into the fatty tissue. The most appropriate in the management of this injury would be which of the following?
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Explanation:
Dog bites are a common medical problem. Timely and copious irrigation with normal saline or Ringer´s lactate will reduce the rate of infection markedly. Recent wounds and wounds on the faces are usually closed primarily. Cultures are usually not helpful unless the wound appears infected. Amoxicillin/clavulanate is the antibiotic of choice for a dog bite. Since this is a neighbor´s dog, it can be observed at home for 10 days if the rabies vaccination is current or at a veterinarian´s office if vaccination status is unknown.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 pointsA 13 year old girl has refused to go to school 3 times in the past 4 months. She says. “My tummy hurts,” but she cannot point to where it bothers her. Her appetite is good, her bowel movements are normal, and she is sleeping well at night. She is a healthy-looking girl and her physical examination is normal. The likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
This is a classic example of psychiatric stress that is expressed through physical symptoms. Somatization disorder is characterized by multiple physical complaints (which include pain and GI, sexual, and neurologic symptoms) over several years that cannot be explained fully by a physical disorder. Symptoms usually begin before age 30 and are not intentionally produced or feigned. Diagnosis is based on history after excluding physical disorders. Treatment focuses on establishing a consistent, supportive physician-patient relationship that avoids exposing the patient to unnecessary and potentially unsafe diagnostic testing and therapies.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 pointsA 2 month old has a calcium level of 1.80 (corrected) after an assessment for failure to thrive (FTT). The mother tells you that she has been consistently breastfeeding without trouble as corroborated by a visiting nurse. Among your differentials, what thing is at the top?
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Explanation:
Vitamin D or properly termed cholecalciferol, formed in the skin is the precursor to the biologically active form 1, 25 (OH) 2D, a steroid hormone that is synthesized via a number of steps in the liver and the kidney. It is this final form 1, 25(OH) 2D of “vitamin” D that performs the important calcium utilization function. Adequate intakes of calcium and sufficient exposure to sunlight is the normal, biologically safe way to ensure normal calcium metabolism for exclusively breastfed infants. ´Vitamin” D supplementation is a therapeutic means to prevent and treat rickets and ensure that adequate bone mineralization occurs for those at risk. Those who may be at risk are dark skinned infants who are born to mothers who did not receive vitamin D supplements or consumed vitamin D supplemented milk or who themselves were not adequately exposed to sunlight during pregnancy and who exclusively breastfeed without exposing themselves and their infants to sunlight.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 pointsThe correct statement about a child with short stature is
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Explanation:
Children with constitutional growth delay (CGD), the most common cause of short stature and pubertal delay, typically have retarded linear growth within the first 3 years of life. In this variant of normal growth, linear growth velocity and weight gain slows beginning as young as age 3-6 months, resulting in downward crossing of growth percentiles, which often continues until age 2-3 years. At that time, growth resumes at a normal rate, and these children grow either along the lower growth percentiles or beneath the curve but parallel to it for the remainder of the prepubertal years. CGD is a global delay in development that affects every organ system. Delays in growth and sexual development are quantified by skeletal age, which is determined from bone age radiographic studies of the left hand and wrist. Growth and development are appropriate for an individual´s biologic age (skeletal age) rather than for their chronologic age. Timing and tempo of growth and development are delayed in accordance with the biologic state of maturity.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 pointsConcerned parents bring their 16 year old daughter because her recent weight loss. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Physical examination is notable for a body mass index of 23, bilateral parotid gland enlargement, dental erosions on the lingual surfaces of her teeth, submandibular lymphadenopathy, and elongated abrasions on the dorsal surface of her right hand. Out of the following, the most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
Findings associated with self-induced vomiting include swelling of the parotid gland and submandibular glands, abnormal dentition, perimolysis (loss of dentin on the lingual and occlusal surfaces of the teeth), and abrasions on the dorsum of the hand (caused by scraping against the incisors during attempts to induce vomiting). These signs would most strongly support the diagnosis of bulimia nervosa.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 pointsA 9 month old is seen for a routine well-baby examination. No health problems are present and developmental milestones are normal. Review of the growth chart shows that length, weight, and head circumference have continued to remain at the 75th percentile. The examination is normal with the exception of the anterior fontanelle being closed. At this time what would proper management include which of the following?
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Explanation:
The anterior fontanelle in the newborn is normally 0.6-3.6 cm, with the mean size being 2.1 cm. It may actually enlarge the first few months, but the medial age of closure is 13.8 months. The anterior fontanelle closes at 3 months in l% of cases, and by 1 year, 38% are closed.
While early closure of the anterior fontanelle may be normal, the head circumference must be carefully monitored. The patient needs to be monitored for craniosynostosis (premature closure of one of more sutures} and for abnormal brain development. When craniosynostosis is suspected, a skull radiograph is useful for initial evaluation. If craniosynostosis is seen on the film, a CT scan should be obtained. -
Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 pointsA mother brings her 2 year old child to you because he does not eat. Pregnancy and delivery were normal and his birth weight was 4 kg. He was breastfed up to 6 months of age. He is now drinking 1.5 L of milk a day, and loves juices. His height (91 cm) is in the 90th percentile and his weight 16.5 kg) is over the 97th percentile for his age. Most appropriate in the initial management of this problem is
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Explanation:
This child´s birth weight was normal and now he is in the 97th percentile for weight. This suggests that he is being overfed by a mother who will need proper counseling with regard to her toddler´s diet.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 pointsA 14 year old boy presents to your office complaining of recent growth of his breasts. History of cardiac disease is present and is currently taking digoxin and hydrochlorothiazide. On examination your patient is slim, his blood pressure is 160/96 mmHg, and he has bilateral non-tender gynecomastia. The remainder of his physical examination is within age normal limits. Your patient asks about breast enlargement in males. Which of the following information should not be given?
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Explanation:
Gynecomastia is an abnormal enlargement of one or both breasts in men. Milk production may or may not be present. Gynecomastia is fairly common. It is a physiologic phenomenon that occurs during puberty, when at least half of males experience enlargement of one or both breasts. Pubertal hypertrophy is characterized by a tender discoid enlargement of the breast tissue beneath the areola and usually subsides spontaneously within a year.
Gynecomastia also is common among elderly men, particularly when there is associated weight gain. This condition is usually temporary and benign. It may be caused by hormonal imbalance, medication with estrogens or steroidal compounds, or failure of the liver to inactivate circulating estrogen, as in alcoholic cirrhosis.
The causes of gynecomastia are multiple. A search for a common mechanism has not been successful. A number of researchers believe that in many cases (but not all), an altered androgen/estrogen ratio causes changes in cellular elements in breast tissue. This could be due to: decrease in production of androgen, increase in estrogen formation and- a decrease in sensitivity of breast tissue to androgens -
Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 pointsA risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is which of the following?
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Explanation:
Newborns with a history of SIDS in siblings are at greater risk for SIDS than other neonates and should be monitored. The other conditions are not known to be associated with SIDS.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 pointsAt what age a prepubescent female begins to develop pubic hair?
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Explanation:
The Tanner II stage of development indicates that pubic hair begins to grow along the labia at approximately 11 years of age.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 pointsA 20 year old mother brings her first child, a 100day-old infant, to the pediatrician. In a fearful tone of voice she states: “Every time I drop something or the dog barks, he jumps and jerks his little arms to his chest like he´s afraid. Is something wrong with him?” The pediatrician explains that the behavior is normal and will most likely be naturally disappear at what age?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The Moro reflex can be elicited in the infant by any startling event; it consists of extension and abduction of the arms followed by flexion and adduction of the arms. This is a normal reflex that appears between the ages of 25 and 36 weeks of gestation, and will normally disappear between 3-6 months.
The palmar grasp reflex, characterized by the infant´s hand closing over an object placed in the palm of the hand, normally disappears after 1-2 months of age (choice A) The tonic neck reflex consists of extension of the ipsilateral leg and flexion of the contralateral arm and leg when the head is turned. This reflex normally disappears between 7 and 8 months of life (choice C).
The Babinski reflex is elicited when the lateral surface of the sole of the foot is stroked, resulting in the great toe going up and the other toes fanning. It normally disappears at 1 year of age (choice D).
Deep tendon reflexes can be elicited by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer, stretching the tendon and producing contraction in the corresponding muscle. These reflexes are present throughout life (choice E)