GENERAL PRACTITIONER EXAM
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Question 1 of 57
1. Question
1 pointsA 3 year boy presents to the emergency room following a 40 second generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He had been ill with a high fever for 24 hours. His history is unremarkable, and physical examinations normal, CBC and urinalysis are normal. Which one of the following would be the best initial step?
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Explanation:
Reassure the mother and recommend close observation
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Question 2 of 57
2. Question
1 pointsA young couple brings their 20 months old son to their pediatrician because he has not learned to speak. Does not interact or play hands. Physical examination is normal although he responds unusually to lights and noise. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Pervasive developmental disorder
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Question 3 of 57
3. Question
1 pointsIn the initial management of neonatal seizures, which one of the following measures is the most appropriate?
Correct
10% glucose solution
Incorrect
Explanation:
10% glucose solution
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Question 4 of 57
4. Question
1 pointsA 9 year old boy was found to have a posterior fossa mass on CT scan. He has been suffering from a gait disturbance for several weeks. The most likely cause for these findings is
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Explanation:
Medulloblastoma
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Question 5 of 57
5. Question
1 pointsA 16 year old boy is being evaluated after a fall down one flight of stairs. He was transported by the local rescue squad with his cervical spine immobilized. He walked briefly at the scene and did not lose consciousness. His only complaint is a mild, generalized headache. Shortly after the accident an episode of vomiting occurred. No weakness or numbness has been noted. Vital signs, mental status, and neurologic findings are normal. Radiologic evaluation of the cervical spine is remarkable only for an air-fluid level in the sphenoid sinus. With this radiologic finding which abnormality is most likely to be associated?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
A basilar skull fracture
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Question 6 of 57
6. Question
1 pointsA 3 year boy presents to the emergency room following a 40 second generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He had been ill with a high fever for 24 hours. His history is unremarkable, and physical examinations normal, CBC and urinalysis are normal. Which one of the following would be the best initial step?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Reassure the mother and recommend close observation
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Question 7 of 57
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not part of the normal developmental milestones for a 24 month old child?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Begins to copy some capital letters
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Question 8 of 57
8. Question
1 pointsA 5 year old child is very unkept, dirty, does not speak proper sentences, and seems malnourished on physical exam. You have mentioned your concerns to the mother in the past. What is the most appropriate next step at this time?
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Explanation:
Child protection service (CPS) or children´s aid society (CAS) is a service physician or the general public can contact and report suspected cases of child neglect or abuse.
CPS agencies generally perform a series of functions as follows:
They receive reports of child maltreatment allegations. Then they determine if a received report´s allegations meet statutory definitions for child maltreatment.
If a received report is accepted, then CPS “investigates” or “assesses” the allegations through contacts with the family and pertinent collateral-information providers.
If the child-maltreatment allegations prove sufficiently credible and/or if the family is in need of services to prevent future maltreatment, they are generally provided.
If the child´s remaining in the home creates an imminent or significant long-term risk to the child´s safety, then arrangement for the child´s placement outside of the home is made either with the family´s consent or through the courts. -
Question 9 of 57
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not part of the normal developmental milestones for a 24 month old child?
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Explanation:
Building tower of four blocks or more, running, handling a spoon well and scribbling spontaneously occur up to the age of 2. Copying some capital letters occurs at end of 4 years.
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Question 10 of 57
10. Question
1 pointsA 16 year old boy is being evaluated after a fall down one flight of stairs. He was transported by the local rescue squad with his cervical spine immobilized. He walked briefly at the scene and did not lose consciousness. His only complaint is a mild, generalized headache. Shortly after the accident an episode of vomiting occurred. No weakness or numbness has been noted. Vital signs, mental status, and neurologic findings are normal. Radiologic evaluation of the cervical spine is remarkable only for an air-fluid level in the sphenoid sinus. With this radiologic finding which abnormality is most likely to be associated?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
A post-traumatic air-fluid level in the sphenoid sinus is associated with basilar skull fractures. This finding is frequently noted on a cervical spine films.
Orbital floor fractures may be associated with double vision, fluid in the maxillary sinus, an air-fluid level in the maxillary sinus, and diplopia. Epidural hematomas are more frequently associated with skull fractures in the area of the meningeal artery. Zygomatic fractures are more visible on Towne´s view. Characteristic swelling and lateral V orbital bruising are typically present. Mandible fractures may be associated with dental misalignment or bleeding. Panoramic views are often diagnostic. -
Question 11 of 57
11. Question
1 pointsA 16 year old white female is brought to your office because she has been “passing out”. She tells you that on several occasions while playing in the high-school band at the end of the hall how she has “blacked out”. She describes feeling lightheaded with spots before her eyes and tunnel vision just prior to falling. According to her friends she appears to be pale and sweaty when these episodes occur. No seizures have been present. In each instance she regain consciousness almost immediately; there is no postictal state. She has been seen in the emergency department for this on two occasions with normal vital signs, physical findings, and neurologic findings. A CBC, a metabolic profile, and an EKG are also normal. The test most likely to yield correct diagnosis is
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Explanation:
Reflex syncope is a strong diagnostic consideration for episodes of syncope associated with a characteristic precipitating factor. The major categories of syncope include carotid sinus hypersensitivity, and neurally mediated and situational syncopes. The most common and benign forms of syncope are neurally mediated or vasovagal types with sudden hypotension, frequently accompanied by bradycardia. Other terms for this include neurocardiogenic, vasomotor, neurovascular, or vasodepressive syncope. Most patients are young and otherwise healthy. The mechanism of the syncope seems to be a period of high sympathetic tone (often induced by pain or fear), followed by sudden sympathetic withdrawal, which then triggers a paradoxical vasodilation and hypotension. Attacks occur with upright posture, often accompanied by a feeling of warmth or cold sweating, lightheadedness, yawning, or dimming of vision. If the patient does not lie down quickly he or she will fall, with the horizontal position allowing a rapid restoration of central profusion. Recovery is rapid, with no focal neurologic sense of confusion or headache. The event can be duplicated with tilt testing, demonstrating hypotension and bradycardia.
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Question 12 of 57
12. Question
1 pointsA 15 month old child suffers from spastic cerebral palsy. The most suggestive of perinatal asphyxia as the cause for this condition is
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Explanation:
The etiology of cerebral palsy is not well understood, and brain lesions are though: to be associated with prenatal, perinatal, or postnatal events of varying causes. Risk factors for cerebral palsy are multifactorial and can include preterm birth, multiple gestation, intrauterine growth restriction, male sex, low Apgar scores, intrauterine infections, maternal thyroid abnormalities, prenatal strokes, birth asphyxia due to seizures, maternal methyl mercury exposure, and maternal iodine deficiency.
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Question 13 of 57
13. Question
1 pointsAll of the following are true of gross motor development of an infant EXCEPT
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Explanation:
A child usually is not able to pull him or herself to sitting position until he or she reaches 40 weeks of age. At 28 weeks, however, the child is likely to sit with hands forward for support. The other answer choices correctly reflect normal gross motor development of an infant.
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Question 14 of 57
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is the main treatment of choice in pathological neonatal hyperbilirubinemia?
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Explanation:
Phototherapy is the treatment of choice for pathological neonatal hyperbilirubinemia. Exchange transfusions and Phenobarbital can also lower serum bilirubin, but phototherapy has supplanted them as the safest and most effective primary therapy. Diphenylhydantoin is not useful. Adequate hydration is beneficial but not a mainstay of treatment by itself.
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Question 15 of 57
15. Question
1 pointsAccording to Piaget´s Stages of Cognitive Development, an individual begins to adopt a sense of true self-identity in which one of the following stages?
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Explanation:
The Sensorimotor stage of Piaget´s Stages of Cognitive Development is marked by the ages younger than two years. During this time, the infant explores his new surroundings and aims to control and manipulate his environment. It is at this time that the infant realizes that he is different than the external world; and. subsequently a sense of self-identity is achieved.
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Question 16 of 57
16. Question
1 pointsGender identity typically develops at which one of the following ages?
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Explanation:
Gender identity typically develops between the ages of three to seven years.
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Question 17 of 57
17. Question
1 pointsAt the age of two, a child is expected to reach what percentage of their expected adult weight?
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Explanation:
At the age of two, a child is expected to reach 20% of his or her expected adult weight.
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Question 18 of 57
18. Question
1 pointsA 4-month-old baby is diagnosed with purulent meningitis. The most likely cause is
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Explanation:
In babies three to eighteen months old, the three most common causes of purulent meningitis are H. influenza, N. meningitidis, and S. pneumoniae. Meningitis caused by L. monocytogens, S. aureus, and Gram-negative rods is typically not seen in newborn infants. Klebsiella may cause meningitis in immunocompromised.
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Question 19 of 57
19. Question
1 pointsAn Rh-negative Mississpian (Appalachian culture) woman gave birth to first child at home without medical care. She now presents to an emergency department in labor with her second child. The infant is Rh-positive and shows marked anemia, intense jaundice, and widespread edema. This infant is at particular risk of developing permanent damage to which area specifically related to the high serum bilirubin levels?
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Explanation:
The infant has erythroblastosis fetalis, caused by an immune attack by the mother´s antibodies on the infant´s Rh-positive, antigen-bearing red cells. Infants with severe hydrops fetalis experience severe anemia with cardiac decompensation leading to increasing edema and free hemoglobin overload with high serum bilirubin levels. While the skin pigmentation (jaundice) is the most obvious effect of the elevated bilirubin, the most dangerous effect is toxic damage to the developing central nervous system (notably basal ganglia including the caudate nucleus, thalamus, cerebellum, cerebral gray matter, and spinal cord), known as kernicterus. The adenohypophysis, amygdala, corpus callosum, and pons are not particularly vulnerable to damage by bilirubin.
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Question 20 of 57
20. Question
1 pointsA girl aged 7 years is brought to the physician after her mother notices that the child daydreams a lot. Further examination reveal that these episodes of “daydreaming” are actually epileptic seizures. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
Partial simple seizure is seen in association with focal muscle twitching, usually involving either the arm or the leg. It is often preceded by a lesion in the cranium, such as an infarct or tumor. Partial simple seizures) are seen most often in adults. Partial complex seizures are seen in children, and often are associated with lip smacking and staring. Patients with partial complex seizures demonstrate semi purposeful actions and their seizures are often preceded by sensory delusions, such as a deja vu experience or smelling abnormal odors. Generalized absence seizures are also known as petit mal seizures. They are seen in children, and often are only recordable by a brief episode of staring. Generalized tonic clonic seizures are also known as grand mal seizures. They are characterized by jerking of the extremities and muscle contraction. Sometimes there can be loss of consciousness and biting of the tongue. Finally, alcohol withdrawal seizures are manifested between one and four days after cessation of alcohol consumption. These are typically isolated seizures and are characterized as grand mal seizures.
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Question 21 of 57
21. Question
1 pointsA 6 month old infant´s MRI reveals a complex set of congenital malformations of the CNS including a small posterior fossa, downward displacement of cerebellar vermis and medulla through the foramen magnum, syringomyella, and myelomeningocele. The most likely diagnosis is
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Explanation:
Arnold Chiari malformations are among the most frequent congenital anomalies of the CNS. Arnold Chiari type 2 is associated with an abnormally small posterior fossa, with resultant downward displacement of cerebellar vermis and medulla through the foramen magnum. This leads to obstruction of CSF flow and hydrocephalus. Important associated abnormalities include lumbar myelomeningocele and syringomyelia. Arnold Chiari type 1is more frequent than type 2 and consists of downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum. Type 1 is frequently asymptomatic and an incidental autopsy finding. If severe, obstruction of CSF flow results in hydrocephalus. Anencephaly is the most severe form of neural tube defect, which results from failure of the neural tube to close, either at its rostral end (leading to anencephaly, encephalocele, or encephalomeningocele) or at its caudal end (leading to spina bifida, meningocele, or myelomeningocele). Anencephaly is frequent (1-5 cases/1000 live births) and incompatible with life. The brain is replaced by a disorganized mass of neural tissue and blood vessels exposed to amniotic fluid. A Dandy Walker malformation is associated with an abnormally large posterior fossa. The cerebellar vermis is absent and replaced by a large ependyma lined midline cyst that represents an expanded 4th ventricle. Brainstem nuclei are also abnormal. Holoprosencephaly results from incomplete separation of the cerebral hemisphere along the midline leading, in its extreme form, to a single midline ventricular cavity enclosed within the forebrain. Associated facial anomalies, including the striking cyclopia (a single midline eye in the forehead with associated proboscis), are frequent. Holoprosencephaly is often associated with trisomy 13 and less often with trisomy 18.
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Question 22 of 57
22. Question
1 pointsA head CT scan of a 10 year old child with new onset of visual field abnormalities shows a 3 cm mass lesion with focal calcifications involving the area above the sella turcica. On biopsy the tumor is composed of tissue resembling tooth enamel. This child´s condition would most likely be associated with
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Explanation:
The tumor is a craniopharyngioma. Craniopharyngiomas are benign tumors of epithelial cells that are derived from Rathke´s pouch. They may arise in, or more commonly above, the sella turcica. The histologic pattern recapitulates the enamel organ of the tooth with nests or cords of stratified squamous or columnar epithelium embedded in a loose fibrous stroma. Calcification (and even metaplastic bone formation) is common in these benign tumors. These tumors often impinge upon the optic chiasm which can lead to a bitemporal hemianopsia. In addition, they can compress the pituitary gland, resulting in pituitary or adrenal dysfunction, diabetes insipidus, obesity´, growth failure, and hypothyroidism. Galactorrhea is a common presenting symptom of pituitary adenomas, due to hypersecretion of prolactin. Craniopharyngiomas are more likely to cause pituitary dysfunction. Gigantism is the clinical presentation of elevated levels of growth hormone in children before puberty´. In adults, the condition is known as acromegaly. Here also, the tumor is more likely to cause pituitary dysfunction. Infertility may result from tumors involving sex hormones. Since craniopharyngiomas are benign they are not known to metastasize.
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Question 23 of 57
23. Question
1 pointsA previously normal child deteriorates developmentally at 6 months of age. She has a history of seizures and is hypotonic. She is seen by an ophthalmologist because she no longer responds to visual stimuli. A cherry-red spot on the macula is noted on ophthalmologic examination. What function is lacking?
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Explanation:
Tay-Sachs disease is a severe autosomal recessive disease characterized clinically by mental retardation, blindness, muscular weakness, and death by 3 years of age. The cherry-red spot is a classic clue for Tay-Sachs disease. The disease is prevalent in Ashkenazi (East European) Jews. Hexosaminidase A normally functions to hydrolyze a bond between N-acetylglucosamine and galactose in the polar head of the ganglioside GM2, an N-acetylneuraminic acid-containing glycolipid found in high concentration in the brain. Without hexosaminidase A activity, this ganglioside accumulates, leading to degenerative CNS changes.
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Question 24 of 57
24. Question
1 pointsA 9-year-old has complains of difficulty, reading and concentrating in his class. On examination, there are eight pigmented cutaneous lesions >5 mm in diameter ranging from light to dark brown on his body with distinct borders, as well as two small, soft masses above his orbit. Numerous freckles in axilla and groin are present. 4 and 6 months ago, he had 2 episodes of seizures. Mother has similar lesions. What complication is present?
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Explanation:
Neurofibromatosis (NF) is a multisystem genetic disorder The diagnostic criteria for NF-1 are met if two or more of the following features are present.
- Six or more café-au-lait macules.
- 5 mm in greatest diameter in prepubertal individuals (as in this patient), and 15 mm in greatest diameter in postpubertal individuals
- Freckling in the axillary or inguinal regions
- Optic glioma
- Two or more Lisch nodules (iris hamartomas)
- A distinctive osseous lesion, such as sphenoid dysplasia or thinning of the long-bone cortex
- A first-degree relative with NF-1 according to the above criteria
- Two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma
The findings in the present patient fulfill the diagnostic criteria for NF-1. Seizures occur more often in patients with NF-1, although they are not a frequent complication. Seizures can be of any type and can begin at any age. Seizures can occur in all three of the phacomatoses (NF, tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-Weber), so seizures should not be used to differentiate one from the others. Skeletal manifestations include long-bone dysplasias and scoliosis. Tibial dysplasia presents as bowing of the tibia. Fracture may occur at the site of dysplasia, causing pseudoarthrosis.
Cardiac rhabdomyoma is a feature of tuberous sclerosis. Skin features include hypopigmented macules (ash-leaf macules), facial angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum), and Shagreen patches (connective tissue nevi). Seizures are the most common presenting symptom.
Cerebral calcification is seen in Sturge-Weber, which is suspected on the basis of facial nevus, glaucoma in the ipsilateral eye, and seizures contralateral to the side of the nevus. The diagnosis of Sturge-Weber is made with skull X-ray or CT showing the calcification. The present patient meets the criteria for NF-1. Diabetes mellitus is another disorder with associated pigmentation of acanthosis nigricans, which is a velvet/thickening and hyperpigmentation of the skin, is often seen on the neck and in the axilla. Acanthosis nigricans is associated with obesity and insulin resistance.
Malignant melanoma should be suspected if a pigmented lesion shows a rapid growth or change in color. Malignant melanoma is rare in children. In addition, the present patient meets the criteria for NF-1 which is not related to malignant melanoma. -
Question 25 of 57
25. Question
1 pointsA 15 month old boy had an afebrile seizure 3 months back. Born at 28 weeks gestation, he eats most solid foods without choking and drinks from a sippy cup and a regular cup. He wakes up at night couple of times. He can sit alone without support but does not crawl or walk. He can verbalize 4 to 5 words. His growth is at the fiftieth percentile for length and FOC and at the tenth percentile for weight. There is increased tone in his lower extremities and trunk. What other finding may co-exist?
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Explanation:
The patient described in the vignette has cerebral palsy, which is often accompanied by comorbidities. These conditions include cognitive disability, mental retardation, visual impairment, skeletal malformations, communication disorders, seizures, poor oral-motor function, and poor growth and development. This patient will most likely also have trouble with feeding and constipation. Cerebral palsy is characterized by non-progression of motor impairment, not regression.
Recurrent rashes and tachycardia would not be seen specifically in someone who has cerebral palsy. Tendon releases may be necessary in severe cases of cerebral palsy if contractures occur. The current physical examination does not show any contractures. These are not as common as constipation at this young age. -
Question 26 of 57
26. Question
1 pointsA 3-year-old lethargic male has fever, headache and neck pain and stiffness along photophobia and conjunctival injection. Temperature = 39.7°C, pupils are equal and reactive and fundoscopy is unremarkable. CBC reveals a TLC= 24,000/mm3with 64 segmented neutrophils and 25 bands. LP reveals elevated CSF pressure, decreased glucose, and elevated protein. A Gram´s stain shows gram-negative Pleomorphic white colonies. The immunization status is in question. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
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Explanation:
Haemophilus influenzae is now a rare cause of meningitis in children since development of the Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine. The case reveals a questionable immunization history, thus making this patient susceptible to H. influenzae type b. Kernig´s sign is elicited by placing the patient in supine position, flexing the leg at the hip to 90 degrees and then straightening the knee to elicit pain in the back or posterior thigh as predictive evidence of meningitis.
Laboratory and CSF data support bacterial etiology, and Gram´s stain with growth on chocolate agar confirms the diagnosis of Haemophilus influenzae as the causative agent. Haemophilus ducreyi is the causative agent for chancroid (soft chancre).
Neisseria meningitidis is a gram-negative diplococcus that also can grow on chocolate agar, but grows best on modified Thayer- Martin media. Meningococcal meningitis classically presents with a petechial rash. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Listeria monocytogenes are both organisms that cause meningitis.
Both, however, are gram-positive. Listeria monocytogenes is predominantly seen as cause of neonatal meningitis. -
Question 27 of 57
27. Question
1 pointsA four week old is irritable and restless for the past 3 hours with incessant crying during this time and poor feeding. There is decreased muscle tone. There is no evidence of a rash. The fontanelle is bulging. What is the most likely cause of meningitis in this patient?
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Explanation:
One of the most common causes of meningitis among neonates and infants up to the age of 3 months old is Listeria monocytogenes. Other agents responsible for meningitis in this age group include Escherichia coli and Group B Streptococcus. L.
monocytogenes is more common in those with immune system defects, particularly of the cellular (T cell) immune system and sometimes neutrophil defects. Neonates and the elderly have decreased T-cell immune function; therefore, Listeria is more common in the very young and the very old.
Borrelia burgdorferi is not as common as Listeria among neonates and infants. B. burgdorferi this the etiological agent behind Lyme disease, a zoonotic disease transmitted by ticks. The question will usually give a clue, such as a tick-bite or an annular red rash (the erythema migrans rash that occurs at the site of the tick bite) or a person from Massachusetts, New York, etc.
Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus that primarily occurs in patients who are immunocompromised, such as those patients who are HIV positive. Although it is common among this patient population, it is not the most common agent to cause meningitis among this population. Cryptococcus is usually associated with those HIV positive patients who have profound decreases fin their T-cell counts to levels less than 100 cells.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is incorrect as there is nothing in the question stem that points toward this etiological agent (such as a history of TB, cough, weight loss or night sweats). It is not as common as Listeria among neonates and infants.
Neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause of meningitis among adolescents and young adults. It is spread by respiratory droplets and results in the characteristic petechial rash. It is not the most common cause of meningitis among neonates and infants.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of meningitis overall, however, it is not the most common cause of meningitis among neonates and infants.
Treponema pallidum is the causative agent behind syphilis.
It is not the most common cause of meningitis among neonates or infants. Congenital syphilis is divided into early and late stages.
Early stage manifestations appear before 2 years of age and include fever, anemia, failure to thrive, a maculopapular rash, snuffles, hepatosplenomegaly, periostitis of the long bones, and thrombocytopenia. Late-stage manifestations are skeletal and include saber shin, Hutchinson teeth, saddle nose and knee synovitis.
Measles virus being a virus is not as common in this age group. -
Question 28 of 57
28. Question
1 pointsA 14-year-old boy is evaluated for short stature. He has no significant past medical history and is considered otherwise healthy by his parents. He eats a normal diet and has regular meals. His height and weight have been consistently at the 5thpercentile since early childhood. His physical examination is normal, with genitalia at Tanner stage 3. Which of the following is the most likely laboratory finding for this boy?
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Explanation:
This boy most likely has familial short stature (FSS). Children with FSS usually have a normal birth weight and length. At the age of 2-3 years, however, their growth begins to decelerate and drop: to around the 5th percentile. The onset and progression of puberty in children with FEB are normal. Bone age is typically consistent with the chronologic age. Short stature is defined as a standing height more than two standard deviations (SDs) below the mean. Skeletal maturation is typically determined by the bone age, which is assessed using anteroposterior radiography of the left hand and wrist. Measurements that fall below the 3rd percentile for height are termed short stature.
A decreased complement C3 level may suggest chronic inflammatory disorders. But the lack of any signs or symptoms makes any chronic inflammatory disorder unlikely.
A decreased serum albumin concentration can be secondary to a variety of conditions, such as nephrotic syndrome and malnutrition. But, the lack of supportive history and physical examination data makes these conditions unlikely.
Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) would suggest hyperthyroidism, which in the absence of any other symptoms, would be an unlikely diagnosis and cause of his short stature.
An increased serum creatinine level indicates renal failure, but this is in consistent with the child´s history and physical examination. -
Question 29 of 57
29. Question
1 pointsA 3-year-old has complains of weakness for the last few months. Since 3 months, he has gradual difficulty running, jumping, and walking up step. He uses hand support to push himself to an upright position when arising from floor. He has hip waddle and enlargement of both calves. Muscle strength is diminished symmetrically. Which of the following is the pathophysiologic mechanism of this disease?
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Explanation:
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the most common type of muscular dystrophy. It is an X-linked genetic disorder that happens in 1:3,600 boys. It is characterized by progressive muscle weakness caused by degeneration of muscle fibers. The main pathophysiologic mechanism of Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a mutation in the gene that is responsible for the production of dystrophin.
Dystrophin is located on the plasma membrane of muscle fibers. Its function is to stabilize the muscle membrane, thereby protecting it from degradation. Its absence results in degeneration of muscle fibers, causing progressive weakness. The disease is rarely symptomatic at birth but usually develops to clinically evident stage before the age of 5 years. Poor head control can be the first sign. Weakness is prominent in proximal muscles. Affected children often present with toe-walking and difficulty climbing stairs. The gait is waddling, and patients often fall. The Gower sign is characteristic of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. It is considered positive if the patient uses his hands to “walk” up the legs when going from a prone to an upright sitting position because he does not have enough proximal muscle power to rise in a normal fashion. Pseudohypertrophy of the calves is also a prominent feature. Many Duchenne patients die in their 20s because of respiratory, failure. Complaints of leg pain may also be found with early disease.
Juvenile inflammatory myopathy includes juvenile polymyositis (JPM) and juvenile dermatomyositis (JDM). Even though the features of muscle weakness could be similar to Duchenne, affected children with JDM or JPM present with a prodrome of nonspecific findings that includes malaise, muscle pain, fever, and irritability which is often mistaken as a viral illness; Low-grade fever is noted in about 50% of cases. Rash in JDM is characteristic. Moreover, the history of poor head control in a sibling points toward the diagnosis of a genetic disease, especially Duchenne.
Muscle phosphorylase deficiency is seen in McArdle disease, which is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Patients with this condition typically present in adolescence or early adulthood with exercise intolerance with fatigue, myalgia, cramps, myoglobinuria, muscle swelling, and fixed weakness (instead of progressive). McArdle disease is suspected on the basis of the history of exercise-induced symptoms.
Mutations of genes coding for proteins of the nuclear envelope are seen in Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy, a rare, often slowly progressive form of muscular dystrophy that affects the muscles of the arms, legs, face, neck, spine, and heart. The disorder consists of the clinical triad of weakness and degeneration (atrophy) of certain muscles, joints that are fixed in a flexed or extended position (contractures), and abnormalities affecting the heart (cardiomyopathy).
Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy is inherited as an X-linked, autosomal dominant, or autosomal recessive trait Thyroid hormone deficiency in children most commonly manifests with declining growth velocity and short stature. The delay in growth tends to be gradual in onset, and may be present for several years before other symptoms occur, if they occur tall. Other common symptoms are sluggishness, lethargy, cold intolerance, constipation, d[y skin, brittle hair, facial puffiness, and muscle aches and pains.
Physical examination reveals short stature, overweight puffy faces with a dull expression, bradycardia, pseudohypertrophy of the muscles, and delayed deep tendon reflexes. The most common cause of hypothyroidism in children is chronic autoimmune (Hashimoto) thyroiditis. The present patient has adequate growth, and does not have hair and skin abnormalities. -
Question 30 of 57
30. Question
1 pointsA normal infant is meeting all developmental milestones. She is feeding well. She can lift head to 90 degrees in the prone position; her eyes follow past the midline, she laughs, regards her own hand and has slight awareness of her mother. Which of the following is the most likely age if this infant?
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Explanation:
The ability to lift the head to 90 degrees, eyes crossing the midline, laughing and slight awareness of the caregiver are characteristic childhood developmental milestones of a 4 month old infant.A 2-month-old infant can lift the head to 45 degrees, and follow to midline with the eyes, vocalize, smile, and has a state of half-waking consciousness.
A 6-month-old infant can roll over, grasp a rattle, turn to voice, feed self and separate the world into a “parent” and not parent world.
A 9 month old child can sit without support but requires support for standing.
A 12-month-old child can sit without support, pull to stand, use a pincer grasp, babble, indicate wants, and have stranger anxiety. -
Question 31 of 57
31. Question
1 pointsA 5-month-old has begun excessive drooling is a week or two. Previously she was in excellent health. Her feedings have also been affected and she stops in the middle of breast feeding and starts ferociously rubbing her gums over anything within reach. There is bluish discoloration of the gums in a couple of area. The physician explains to the mother that the child´s current symptoms will likely resolve as soon as her first teeth erupt. Which of the following teeth are most to likely to erupt first?
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Explanation:
Teething occurs at approximately 6 to 8 months of age. Symptoms include local discomfort, bluish discoloration of the overlying gums caused by hematoma or eruption cyst, drooling, and irritability. There is no substantial evidence relating teething to diarrhea, rashes, rhinorrhea, or fever. Treatment consists of teething rings and cool compresses. Most commonly, the mandibular (lower) central incisors are the first deciduous teeth to erupt, at the age of 5 to 7 months, followed by the maxillary central incisors at age 6 to 8 months. Below is a table of the approximate order of eruption of primary (deciduous) teeth. Mandibular lateral incisors most commonly erupt at the age of 7 to 10 months.
Maxillary central incisors most commonly erupt at the age of 6 to 8 months.
Maxillary first molars most commonly erupt at the age of 10 to 16 months.
Maxillary lateral incisors most commonly erupt at the age of 8 to 11 months. -
Question 32 of 57
32. Question
1 pointsA 4-month-old boy has poor feeding and irritability over the past 2 weeks. He has been vomiting several times in the past few days, and there is reduced activity in the child. He was born at 26 weeks´ gestation and developed seizures soon after birth. He received vaccinations regularly. Examination reveals tense anterior fontanelle and visibly distended scalp veins. The eyeballs are deviated downward and the upper lids are retracted. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this clinical course?
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Explanation:
This child has developed hydrocephalus, as indicated by the symptoms of poor feeding, irritability, and reduced activity; and the signs of tense anterior fontanelle, distended scalp veins, sunset sign (eyeballs are deviated downward and upper lids are retracted). He also has a history of prematurity´ and seizures alter birth. These findings are compatible with germinal matrix hemorrhage (GM). The germinal matrix is a highly vascularized layer of neuroectodermal precursors lining the ventricular cavities, which becomes more developed between 22 and 30 weeks of intrauterine life.
The vessels of the germinal matrix are especially vulnerable to hypoxic insults. Babies born prematurely are thus at high risk of hemorrhage in the germinal matrix region, as they often suffer from poor oxygenation.
The pathophysiologic consequences depend on the severity of GM.
Severe forms of GM extend into the ventricles and result in death, or obstructive hydrocephalus and neurologic deficits later in life.
Both types of Arnold-Chiari malformation (more frequently type 2) my lead to obstructive hydrocephalus due to compression of the fourth ventricles by the downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils, but would not be the most likely cause of this patient´s condition (given his history of prematurity´).
Kernicterus refers to brain damage due to accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin in the central nervous system. This complication occurs in babies suffering from severe forms of jaundice, e.g., those with erythroblastosis fetalis.
Periventricular leukomalacia is incorrect inasmuch as it would not lead to obstructive hydrocephalus. This also occurs in premature babies as a result from ischemic damage, but to the periventricular white matter and not the ventricular lining. In premature infants, the periventricular white matter is also vulnerable to hypoxic injury.
Ulegyria is a complication related to intrauterine hypoxic injury. The depth of the sulci is more prone to ischemia than the crests of the gyri during intrauterine life. A fetus suffering from early cerebral ischemic damage will thus develop atrophy of the base of the gyri, which then acquire a mushroom-like shape (hence the designation: Ulex = mushroom). Germinal matrix hemorrhage, ulegyria, and periventricular leukomalacia are among the consequences of perinatal brain anoxia, and lead to e complex set of neurologic manifestations referred to as cerebral palsy. -
Question 33 of 57
33. Question
1 pointsA 9-month-old infant is seen in the pediatrician´s office because of failure to gain weight. Her length and weight are both below the 5th percentile at her age. The patient´s chart indicates that at the age of 6 months, her length and weight were at the 50th percentile. A careful history reveals that the mother returned to work when the infant was 6 months old, and the grandmother has assumed the care of the infant most of the time since then. The infant is receiving 6 to 8 oz of iron-fortified, cow protein-based formula every 4 hours. Which of the following is the best initial step in the management of this infant?
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Explanation:
This 9-month-old infant presents with failure to thrive, which is determined by the decline in her length and weight to below the 5th percentile. Failure to thrive is failure to gain weight or deceleration of weight growth. Failure to thrive can be either organic or inorganic (i.e., social). Although it is important to identify the causes of organic failure to thrive, most cases are inorganic. In this clinical vignette, since the reduction of weight happened after the mother returned to work, an inorganic cause is likely. One of the most common causes of failure to thrive is improper preparation of the formula, resulting either from an incorrect water- to-formula ratio or from poor mixing techniques. In addition to b obtaining a detailed history of how the formula is mixed, it might be very useful to have the child´s caregiver actually demonstrate how she prepares the formula. In this case, the most likely reason that the infant has failure to thrive is that the grandmother has mixed the formula improperly. Also, a 9-month-old should be eating some regular table foods, including meats, poultry, and vegetables. Hospitalization for documentation of caloric intake would be appropriate if the patient had any signs and symptoms of abuse by deprivation in addition to the inadequate weight gain, such as unkept look, impetiginized diaper rash, flattened occiput with pressure, alopecia secondary to long hours of lying on the back, irritability, and/or poor muscle tone. Lactose intolerance is an uncommon cause of failure to thrive. It usually presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea.
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Question 34 of 57
34. Question
1 pointsA 2 1/2-year-old is ataxic and mentally retarded. Multiple telangiectasias exist involving the conjunctivae, ears, and antecubital fossae. History of multiple respiratory tract infections is significant. Immunoglobulin studies on the child would most likely demonstrate an absence of which of the following?
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Explanation:
The child´s condition is the autosomal recessive disease, ataxia-telangiectasia, which is a multisystem disorder of unknown etiology. The ataxia is noticed in early childhood, and with time, progresses to severe disability. Choreoathetoid movements, slurred speech, ophthalmoplegia, and progressive mental retardation characterize the disease as it advances. Telangiectasias, as described in the question stem, are a helpful diagnostic clue. These children also are vulnerable recurrent sinopulmonary infections.
Immunologic evaluation may demonstrate a lack of IgA and IgE, cutaneous anergy, and a progressive cellular immune defect. Other features of the syndrome include endocrine disorders and a predisposition for certain cancers (leukemias, brain cancer, and gastric cancer). Most of these patients die of their neurologic deterioration by age 30.
IgG and IgM are not specifically affected in this condition. -
Question 35 of 57
35. Question
1 pointsA 10-month-old boy cannot stop vomiting and has been ill for the past 10 days. He has no diarrhea or blood in the stools. Being otherwise healthy, his mucous membranes are dry, he has reduced tears, appears lethargic. After a bolus of normal saline, he extends his extremities and starts jerking them forcibly for 10 seconds. What would be an appropriate measure in the management of this patient?
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Explanation:
Vomiting in a 10 month old infant without diarrhea, along with lethargy, dehydration, and a full anterior fontanelle is an ominous sign, pointing towards an intracranial process. In addition, the child is exhibiting posturing, not having seizure, from continued overhydration and increasing intracranial pressure. Accordingly, intravenous dexamethasone must be administered to decrease the intracranial pressure, along with other measures.
Corticosteroids are used in the management of mass lesions such as ´brain tumor and brain abscess, owing to the anti-inflammatory and membrane stabilizing effects. Corticosteroids counteract the vasogenic edema associated with these conditions. The most likely cause of this child´s increased ICP is a brain tumor, although they are a rare occurrence in the pediatric population (about 1 in 25,000 children annually).
Administering another bolus of normal saline would further exacerbate the child´s condition by increasing his ICP. The goal of treatment is to decrease the cerebral fluid load, no increase it Administering fosphenytoin or lorazepam would be appropriate if the child were seizing, but this patient is not having a seizure, so these drugs would be ineffective in treating his condition.
Administering prochlorperazine, an anti-emetic, would only mask the patient´s vomiting, but not treat the underlying condition. -
Question 36 of 57
36. Question
1 pointsAn infant comes to the office for his 1-year checkup. His father states that he is worried that his son is smaller than he should be. The child´s weight is 8.6 kg (19 lb), and his length is 71 cm (28 in). He appears to be growing appropriately on his growth curve. Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation about growth to be given to the father?
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Explanation:
Most infants are expected to triple their birth weight by the age of 12 months. Infants usually double their birth weight by 6 months, not 1 year.
Infants usually quadruple their birth weight by 24 months. Infants usually double their length by 4 years. Infants do not usually triple their length until they are out or infancy and into puberty. -
Question 37 of 57
37. Question
1 pointsA 6-year-old boy (otherwise normal) often “blanks” out with tears in his eyes. This has been affecting his classroom performance. There is no history of convulsions, loss of consciousness, or bladder or bowel incontinence. EEG shows generalized spikes and slow wave discharges. What would be the most appropriate treatment?
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Explanation:
Absence seizures are a common pediatric epileptic disorder. The seizures consist of multiple brief staring episodes with behavioral arrest that may occur several times a day. They are associated with generalized 3-Hz spike and slow wave discharges on EEG. Ethosuximide (drug or choice), valproic acid, and lamotrigine are the most effective antiepileptic agents for absence seizures. Ethosuximide is effective only against absence seizures. Absence seizure has a good long-term prognosis, with disappearance or seizures in the teen years.
Carbamazepine is used in the treatment of generalized tonic-clonic seizures and complex partial seizures.
Ethosuximide and valproic acid is incorrect, as single-drug therapy is the goal or epilepsy treatment. Monotherapy is associated with better compliance, less adverse effects, less potential for teratogenicity, and lower cost than polytherapy. Moreover, with single- drug therapy, drug interactions can be avoided.
Methylphenidate is a CNS stimulant that is used for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and narcolepsy. It does not have a role in the treatment or absence seizures.
Because the patient is having several episodes of absence seizures and effective antiepileptic therapy is available, offering no treatment (choice I) would be inappropriate.
Treatment with vigabatrin has been associated with the exacerbation or absence seizures. -
Question 38 of 57
38. Question
1 pointsA 3 year boy presents to the emergency room following a 40 second generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He had been ill with a high fever for 24 hours. His history is unremarkable, and physical examinations normal, CBC and urinalysis are normal. Which one of the following would be the best initial step?
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Explanation:
Febrile seizures occur in children < 6 years with body temperature > 38˚C and no previous afebrile seizures and that have no other identifiable cause. Diagnosis is clinical after exclusion of other causes. Treatment of seizures lasting < 15 min is supportive.
Seizures lasting ≥ 15 min are treated with IV lorazepam and, if persistent, IV fosphenytoin. Maintenance drug therapy to prevent recurrent febrile seizures or development of afebrile seizures is usually not indicated unless multiple or prolonged episodes have occurred. -
Question 39 of 57
39. Question
1 pointsA young couple brings their 20 months old son to their pediatrician because he has not learned to speak. Does not interact or play hands. Physical examination is normal although he responds unusually to lights and noise. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation:
Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by impaired social interaction and communication, repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior, and uneven intellectual development often with mental retardation. Symptoms begin in early childhood. The cause in most children is unknown, although evidence supports a genetic component; in some, autism may be caused by a medical condition. Diagnosis is based on developmental history and observation. Treatment consists of behavioral management and sometimes drug therapy.
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Question 40 of 57
40. Question
1 pointsA 4 month old child has been noticed to have episodes where he tenses his arms and leans his head forward. He has also had poor feeding and a history of upper respiratory infections. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation:
Infantile spasms are characterized by sudden flexion of the arms, forward flexion of the trunk, and extension of the legs. Seizures last a few seconds and recur many times a day. They occur only in the 1st 5 years of life, then are replaced by other types of seizures. Developmental defects are usually present. Absence seizures do not present until age 1-8 years. Febrile seizures would occur when the child has a fever.
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Question 41 of 57
41. Question
1 pointsA mother expresses concerns that her 2 year old son doesn´t seem to want to cuddle with his parents and often doesn´t respond to their voices. The child doesn´t smile, laugh or play with his parents; and his language development is behind that of other children his age. He has been growing well physically. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
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Explanation:
Hearing loss can be present at birth or progress over time. Hearing loss can be hereditary or acquired by environmental means. As the majority of children with hearing loss have no other abnormalities or distinguishing features (called non-syndromic hearing loss), many children have late diagnosis of their loss with significant consequences in delay in language acquisition from the delay in diagnosis.
Accurate testing in children can be difficult primarily of a child´s inability to respond during standard testing. Other tests have been developed that require no direct response from children being tested. These tests are utilized in the hospital just after birth (universal screening) that is identifying children with hearing loss at an early age and allowing for early and appropriate therapy. Advances in genetic testing (molecular biology) has led to the ability to diagnose the cause of hearing loss in many felt to previously to have an unknown cause for their hearing loss. -
Question 42 of 57
42. Question
1 pointsA boy has grown 4.5 cm between 7 and 8 years of age. His height, however, remains below and parallel to the 5th percentile. Clinical examination is entirely normal. His mother is anxious for further investigations. Out of the following, which one would you undertake?
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Explanation:
The growth percentiles by themselves don´t say much. What really matters is the velocity of growth. A normal velocity of growth means the child´s growth points will closely parallel the percentile line above it on the chart. Physicians don´t worry about insufficient (or excessive) growth until a child´s growth velocity has crossed at least two percentile lines (e.g., from above the 90th to below the 50th percentile). Additionally, if a child´s weight, height, or head size is below the 5th percentile, they might also call them small for age. In that case, what´s most important is to see if the growth points parallel the 5th percentile line (meaning growth velocity is normal) or if the child is falling further behind (which is more concerning).
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Question 43 of 57
43. Question
1 pointsA 9 year old boy was found to have a posterior fossa mass on CT scan. He has been suffering from a gait disturbance for several weeks. The most likely cause for these findings is
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Explanation:
Tumors of or near the cerebellum (above the back of the neck), especially medulloblastomas in children, can cause alterations in eye movements, incoordination, unsteadiness in walking, and sometimes hearing loss and dizziness. They can block the drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, causing fluid to accumulate in the spaces within the brain (ventricles). As a result, the ventricles enlarge (a condition called hydrocephalus), and pressure within the skull increases. Symptoms include headaches, nausea, vomiting, difficulty turning the eyes upward, lethargy, and coma with herniation of the brain. In infants, the head enlarges.
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Question 44 of 57
44. Question
1 pointsA woman gives birth to a baby with cleft palate. She is sent home after counseling. She is going to come to your office more often for which of the following reasons?
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Explanation:
Cleft palate if untreated will lead to the baby having feeding problems, speech pathologies and recurrent infections, but in the first months feeding problem have greater importance. Surgical repair can be done at 6-9 months of age.
Cleft lip with partial palate involvement
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Question 45 of 57
45. Question
1 pointsAt which one of the following stages of development is a “best friend” a common finding?
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Explanation:
During the school-aged period, children typically obtain a “best friend.” However, it is not typical until adolescence (>14 years of age) that a child begins to listen and be pressured by these friends (peer pressure).
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Question 46 of 57
46. Question
1 pointsAt which age is a child most likely to point to a picture of a rabbit or a table in a book, name one simple object, point to his/her nose or eye on request, and climb stairs with only the help of the rail?
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Explanation:
At 18 months, the child is likely to demonstrate all the characteristics described in the question. He or she also can throw a ball without falling, seat him or herself in a chair, take off his or her gloves and socks, and unzip fasteners.
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Question 47 of 57
47. Question
1 pointsBy which one of the following well-baby office visits should a child have memorized his/her own name, address, and phone number?
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Explanation:
By the age of five, or approximately at the kindergarten-age level, a child should have garnered the ability to memorize his/her own name, address, and phone number.
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Question 48 of 57
48. Question
1 pointsDuring a well-baby checkup, it is found that an infant is three times his birthweight. Which one of the following times represents the most likely one for the infant to achieve this weight?
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Explanation:
The general rule of thumb for infant growth claims that at one year after birth, a normal healthy infant is approximately three times his birthweight. The infant is two times his birthweight at four to five months of age. And after losing weight in the first few days of life, the infant returns to normal birthweight at approximately seven to ten days of age.
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Question 49 of 57
49. Question
1 pointsBy which one of the following well-baby office visits should a child have developed the ability to recite the alphabet?
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Explanation:
By the age of five years, a child should have developed the ability to recite the alphabet without help. If this has not occurred, intelligence testing is indicated to determine whether there are any mental handicaps that are preventing the child from doing so.
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Question 50 of 57
50. Question
1 pointsBy which one of the following well-baby office visits should a child have developed the ability to dress without supervision?
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Explanation:
Children at the age of five have developed the ability to dress by themselves; however, many mothers still dress the child at this age even though the child can do it alone.
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Question 51 of 57
51. Question
1 pointsAt what point of development does a toddler typically develop the ability to carry true thought?
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Explanation:
An individual is capable of thought at approximately 18 months. It is at this age when an infant can represent an object in a mental frame- work.
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Question 52 of 57
52. Question
1 pointsA 5-month-old infant experiences peripheral sensory neuropathy. Included among the differential diagnoses should be toxicity with which one of the following vitamins?
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Explanation:
Pyridoxine toxicity while very rare is associated with peripheral sensory neuropathy Vitamin E toxicity may cause a necrotizing enterocolitis and hepatitis in children. Vitamin K toxicity, although uncommon, may cause vomiting and hemolysis, as well as albuminuria and hemoglobinuria. Vitamin D toxicity is associated with hypercalcemia, as well as constipation, and sometimes nephrocalcinosis. Pantothenic acid toxicity is associated with diarrhea.
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Question 53 of 57
53. Question
1 pointsA neonate has abnormal accommodation of the lens along abnormal production of aqueous humor. A malformation of the structure responsible for these functions that is continuous posteriorly with the choroid might be due to abnormal development of
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Explanation:
The optic cups derive from the optic vesicles, which are evaginations of the diencephalon. The anterior two layers of the optic cup (neurectoderm), in association with choroidal mesoderm, give rise to the ciliary body and the iris: The optic cup also gives rise to the neural and pigment layers of the retina.
Retinal ganglion cell axons, which run in the optic stalks, become the nerve fibers of the optic nerve. Closure of the choroid fissure in the optic stalk occurs during the seventh week of development. The former optic stalk is then called the optic nerve. Mesoderm surrounding the optic cup becomes the sclera and choroid of the eye. Mesoderm surrounding the optic stalk gives rise to the meninges surrounding the optic nerve. -
Question 54 of 57
54. Question
1 pointsA 10 year old boy with history of epilepsy and mental retardation is brought for evaluation. Examination show several ovoid hypopigmented areas on the trunk and large numbers of red and yellow papules on the face, particularly near the mouth. Biopsy of the papules demonstrates angiofibromata. The CNS pathology that is present in this boy is
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Explanation:
The disease is tuberous sclerosis. The facial angiofibromata are also called adenoma sebaceum, and the hypopigmented patches on the trunk are called ash leaf spots. This disease is one of the neurocutaneous disorders called phacomatoses. Tuberous sclerosis is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, and epilepsy and mental retardation are commonly seen in this disorder. Large, firm, white hamartomatous nodules (tubers) are seen in the cortex and in subependymal sites. The tubers consist of aberrantly arranged neurons and/or glia. Patients may also have pancreatic cysts, renal angiomyolipomas, and cardiac rhabdomyomas. Rarely, an astrocytoma will arise in a tuber. Acoustic neuromas are a feature of neurofibromatosis type II. Capillary hemangioblastomas are a feature of Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Herniation of cerebellar tonsils is a feature of Arnold Chiari malformation. Leptomeningeal angiomatosis is a feature of Sturge Weber disease. -
Question 55 of 57
55. Question
1 pointsA 7-year-old boy has generalized seizures lasting for 10 minutes. He has had purulent otitis for the last week poorly responsive to antibiotic treatment. Temperature is 39.5C (103°F), blood pressure is 128/80mmHg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 18/min. He is oriented and cooperative. Optic disc edema is present. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
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Explanation:
One of the most serious complications of sinusitis and otitis is the development of cerebral abscesses, which can be visualized by a head CT or MRI. This often manifests with persistent fever, variable neurologic deficits, headache, and seizures. Because of the accompanying edema around the abscess, intracranial pressure may develop, which explains papilledema in this case. Cerebral abscesses are life-threatening conditions that often require surgical evacuation.
Blood cultures are often negative in the case of an isolated cerebral abscess. On the other hand, the surgeon should submit samples for culture in case surgical intervention is required.
EEG studies may, at best, show nonspecific (and thus nondiagnostic) focal changes in the temporal region.
Lumbar puncture as in all situations in which signs of – increased intracranial pressure are detected should be avoided. A lumbar tap may precipitate fatal cerebellar tonsillar herniation. -
Question 56 of 57
56. Question
1 pointsA 6-year-old boy develops a viral illness. He has been a healthy child, with all immunizations up-to-date. He is given a decongestant and a painkiller (the names of which his mother cannot recall) for his symptoms with some relief. However, 4 days later, his parents bring him back because of lethargy, persistent vomiting, and irritability. On physical examination, he is found to be semicomatose, becoming combative on stimulation. Which of the following levels should be measured to aid in the diagnosis of his patients?
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Explanation:
This child is presenting with symptoms of Reye syndrome, which is an acute encephalopathy associated with high ammonia levels. It most commonly occurs in young children after a viral illness. Administration of aspirin (the painkiller given to this patient increases the risk of developing this disorder. The lethargy, vomiting, and irritability are characteristic for encephalopathy.
Delirium, seizures, and coma occur.
Renal failure leading to uremia is characterized by an increase in urea nitrogen level. However, the history of illness would be more chronic and the patient´s presentation would be more indicative of renal failure.
Hypercalcemia can cause mental status changes, and management would include intravenous hydration and furosemide. Again, presentation would be more acute, and a history of a malignancy, use of thiazides, milk alkali syndrome, or the like would be elicited. Opiate intoxication would cause pinpoint pupils, depressed breathing, and obtundation. Combativeness should not occur.
Hyponatremia or hypernatremia can cause mental status changes. This patient´s presentation makes this less likely. A history of lung cancer, diuretic use, primary polydipsia, or dehydration would make this diagnosis higher on the differential diagnosis. -
Question 57 of 57
57. Question
1 pointsA 4-year-old child is healthy and up to date on his vaccinations. His mother is concerned about his development because she has been comparing him to other children in his preschool. Which of the following skills would be expected of a 4-year-old?
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Explanation:
A 4-year-old child is able to draw a 4-sided figure (i.e., a square), count to 4, identify 4 colors, say a 4-to 5- word sentence, and draw a picture of a person with at least 4 parts.
(Easily remembered as 4-year-olds do things in 4´s)
Building a staircase with cubes is usually not achieved until the age of 6. A 6-year-old can perform simple addition and draw a person with 12 to 15 parts. Drawing triangle is not achieved until the age of 5. The average 5-year-old can draw a triangle, count to 10, repeat a 10- syllable sentence, and draw a picture of a person with 8 to 10 parts The ability to repeat five digits is typical of a 7-year- old. The average 7-year-old also can repeat three digits backward, draw a diamond shape, and draw a person with 18-22 parts.
Knowing age and sex comes at 3 years.