GENERAL PRACTITIONER EXAM
Question Summary
0 of 9 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
Information
Hi, Welcome to General Practioner Exam
You have already completed the Exam before. Hence you can not start it again.
Exam is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the Exam.
You have to finish following Exam, to start this Exam:
Results
0 of 9 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- Unanswered
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 9
1. Question
1 pointsA 52-year-old man presented with paraesthesia in the ring and little fingers of his left hand. Examination shows wasting of the hypothenar eminence of his left hand. Which one of the following movement would you except to be weak in this patient?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The clinical features suggest an ulnar neuropathy. Abduction and opposition of the thumb and flexion of the index finger are via the median nerve. Extension of the little finger is via the radial nerve.
-
Question 2 of 9
2. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following organs is in direct contact with the anterior surface of the left kidney without being separated from it by peritoneum?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
This is a basic anatomy question. However the only retroperitoneal structure is the pancreas, the body of which is in direct approximation to the anterior surface of the left kidney. The spleen and stomach, though in contact, are covered in omentum.
-
Question 3 of 9
3. Question
1 pointsA 41-year-old had a seat belt injury and now presents with his two week history of numbness and a burning sensation on the lateral aspect of the right upper thigh. Examination reveals sensory loss over the anterolateral thigh. Which one of the following nerve is most likely to be involved in this patient?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The pure sensory loss makes the diagnosis of meralgia paraesthetica and
Is a consequence of damage to the lateral cutaneous nerve, of the thigh.
It is usually a consequence of entrapment at the lateral inguinal ligament or less likely, trauma, ischaemia or a retroperitoneal lesion. Less commonly, the nerve may be entrapped by other anatomical or abnormal structures, or damaged by diabetic or other neuropathy or trauma such as from seat belt injury in an accident. -
Question 4 of 9
4. Question
1 pointsA 56-year-old male presents with a history of low back pain and sciatica. The pain radiates to the little toe, the ankle reflex is absent and the patient has difficulty in everting the foot. Which nerve root is likely to be trapped?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The root supply to the peroneal muscles (which control eversion of the foot and which also participate in ´the reflex arc of the ankle jerk reflex) is S1 via the tibial and superficial peroneal nerves.
The sensory dermatome of the S1 root gives innervation to the postero- lateral aspect of the leg and foot down to and including the little toe and sole of foot. -
Question 5 of 9
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement regarding the internal jugular vein and relations is true?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The internal jugular vein is remarkably constant in position. It descends through the neck from a point halfway between the tip of the mastoid process and the angle of the jaw to the sternoclavicular joint. The anatomy of the jugular vein is important given that it is the site of insertion of central venous catheters. The internal jugular vein originates at the jugular foramen. Sigmoid sinus, inferior petrosal sinus join to form the internal jugular vein within the foramen they enter separately and then join. Internal jugular vein initially lies posterior and lateral to the carotid artery. As it descends in the carotid sheath it lies lateral first to the internal then the common carotid artery within the carotid sheath. It passes anterior to the subclavian artery to join the subclavian vein to form the innominate vein. The internal jugular vein receives a lymphatic trunk at its union with the subclavian vein. The internal jugular vein is usually of considerable size, and the right internal jugular is usually larger than the left. The external jugular vein drains into the subclavian vein.
-
Question 6 of 9
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements concerning the three main structures of the hilum of the kidney is INCORRECT?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The renal vein, renal artery and renal pelvis enter and leave the kidney at the level of the hilum and are situated anatomically in relation to each other in the order mentioned above, moving in an anteroposterior direction. The anatomy of the contents of the hilum can be variable (e.g. The renal pelvis can be bifid, and the renal artery and vein may split into branches or receive tributaries, respectively, to a variable extent at the hilum). This can lead to confusion at the time of surgical dissection in this area. The renal artery divides into 3-5 segmental arteries at the hilum, which divide within the sinus into 6-10 interlobular veins – one for each pyramid and associated cortex. The renal veins follow the arterial pattern closely. The renal veins empty directly into the IVC. Since the IVC lies on the right side of the abdomen, the left renal vein is longer than the right.
-
Question 7 of 9
7. Question
1 pointsA 25-year-old male presents with winging of the scapula. This is caused by injury to what nerve?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior, which stabilizes the scapula to the chest wall. The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid and teres minor; the thoracodorsal nerve innervates the latissimus dorsi; the subscapular nerve innervates the subscapularis; and the musculocutaneous nerve innervates the biceps and brachialis.
-
Question 8 of 9
8. Question
1 pointsA 21-year-old woman had a fall while bicycling. There is a deep laceration over the lateral knee but fractures are negative. Foot-drop occurs along inability to dorsiflex or evert the foot. Which of the following best explains her injury?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The common peroneal nerve wraps around the lateral aspect of the head of the fibula and is highly susceptible to damage during lacerations or blunt injuries to the lateral knee. Foot-drop with loss of dorsiflexion or eversion is characteristic. Only the peroneus longus completely attaches to the fibular head. Other muscles that attach in other places along the tibia and fibula provide dorsiflexion and eversion for the foot (e.g., extensor digitorum longus, peroneus brevis, extensor hallucis longus, and tibialis anterior). The common peroneal nerve then branches into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves, which supply the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg and cutaneous areas of the distal anterior leg, dorsum of the foot, and most of the digits. The tibial nerve supplies all the muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg (e.g., tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, gastrocnemius, and soleus).
-
Question 9 of 9
9. Question
1 pointsA 21-year-old woman had a fall while bicycling. There is a deep laceration over the lateral knee but fractures are negative. Foot-drop occurs along inability to dorsiflex or evert the foot. Which of the following best explains her injury?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The common peroneal nerve wraps around the lateral aspect of the head of the fibula and is highly susceptible to damage during lacerations or blunt injuries to the lateral knee. Foot-drop with loss of dorsiflexion or eversion is characteristic. Only the peroneus longus completely attaches to the fibular head. Other muscles that attach in other places along the tibia and fibula provide dorsiflexion and eversion for the foot (e.g., extensor digitorum longus, peroneus brevis, extensor hallucis longus, and tibialis anterior). The common peroneal nerve then branches into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves, which supply the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg and cutaneous areas of the distal anterior leg, dorsum of the foot, and most of the digits. The tibial nerve supplies all the muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg (e.g., tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, gastrocnemius, and soleus).