GENERAL PRACTITIONER EXAM
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following drugs exerts its primary therapeutic benefit by immunosuppressing the inflammatory response in asthma?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Albuterol is a beta adrenergic agonist and causes bronchodilation. Cromolyn sodium stabilizes mast cells from degranulating in response to an allergen. Glucocorticoids act as a general immunosuppressive. Theophylline acts to bronchodilate and improves mucociliary clearance. -
Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 pointsA 26 year old prostitute develops erythematous, painful, ulcerated lesions on her labia and perineum. She is prescribed a drug in order to minimize the frequency and duration of symptomatic outbreaks. This drug most likely inhibits which one of the following?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Acyclovir inhibits the formation of viral DNA from pyrimidine and purine precursors. Unable to synthesize nucleic acids, the virus is unable to replicate its genome, and thus the rate of infection of neighboring cells declines. In order for this medication to exert its effects, a viral thymidine kinase must phosphorylate it. Inhibiting viral adsorption to the host cell is a mechanism by which immunoglobulins block viral infections. Inhibiting viral packaging and assembly is accomplished by rifampin, and many of the protease inhibitors used to treat HIV infection. Inhibiting viral release is a mechanism of neuraminidase inhibitors such as zanamivir and oseltamivir. Inhibiting the uncoating of viruses is a mechanism of action of amantadine, which blocks the absorption of the influenza A virus. -
Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 pointsA 72 year old is brought to the ER after the development of periorbital edema, a maculopapular rash on her chest, and a fever of 101°F (38.3°C). Investigation reveals blood urea nitrogen of 77 mg/dL and a serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis indicates mild proteinuria and eosinophils, but is negative for glucose and ketones. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, diabetes, and osteoarthritis. What drug caused the appearance of her signs and symptoms?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Acute interstitial nephritis is due to a hypersensitivity reaction usually caused by a drug. Drugs implicated in the pathogenesis of acute interstitial nephritis include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and indomethacin; beta lactam antibiotics, such as cephalothin and methicillin; sulfonamides; diuretics, such as furosemide and thiazides; and drugs like phenytoin, cimetidine, and methyldopa. The typical presentation for acute interstitial nephritis is the development of acute renal failure fever, a maculopapular rash, eosinophilia and white blood cell casts. Sometimes we might even see pyuria and hematuria. The patient´s periorbital edema and wheezing are also consistent with acute interstitial nephritis. Ibuprofen is the most likely causative agent for the development of the patient´s signs and symptoms. Although the exact mechanism by which NSAIDs cause this disorder is not fully understood; it is believed to be related to their ability to decrease prostaglandin formation, which leads to a reduction in renal blood flow. None of the other medications are associated with the development of acute interstitial nephritis. Treatment consists of supportive measures and removal of the inciting agent as well as a short course of corticosteroids. Acarbose is an antidiabetic agent that delays the absorption of glucose from the intestinal tract. Clonidine is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent used in the treatment of hypertension and prophylaxis of migraines. It has been shown to be efficacious in ameliorating symptoms of alcohol tobacco opiate and benzodiazepine withdrawal. It is also used in the treatment of attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity. Metformin is an antidiabetic agent that increases the binding of insulin to its receptor. One important side effect of metformin is the development of lactic acidosis. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used in the treatment of hypertension. -
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 pointsOn examination, a premature infant is found to be in acute distress, and has blue skin and mucous membranes. Echocardiogram shows transposition of the great vessels and patient´s ductus arteriosus. Which of the following agents should be administered to maintain the patent ductus arteriosus?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The PGE1 analog, alprostadil, will maintain a patent ductus arteriosus. Transposition of the great vessels is incompatible with life because the pulmonary and systemic circulations exist in parallel. A shunt must be present to allow oxygenated blood to enter the systemic circulation in order for this malady to be compatible with life. In this case, the ductus arteriosus provides this life saving shunt. Prostaglandins maintain the shunt, so administering a PGE1 analog is necessary until surgical correction of the anomaly can be accomplished. Ibuprofen inhibits the formation of prostaglandins and thus would close this life saving shunt. Indomethacin inhibits the formation of prostaglandins and thus would close this live saving shunt. Nitric oxide provides pulmonary vasodilation in the setting of pulmonary hypertension. It would not be affective in maintaining the ductus arteriosus. Sildenafil is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor. It may be used to induce pulmonary vasodilation. It would not be used to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus. -
Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 pointsDuring an experiment norepinephrine was injected intravenously and smooth muscle contraction was measured (control curve). Curves X, Y, and Z are the result of three separate experiments, in which norepinephrine was administered shortly after an unknown drug. The three most likely drugs (X, Y, Z) used in the three consecutive experiments include
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Explanation:
The graph is that of a log dose response curve of norepinephrine on alpha-1 receptors of vascular smooth muscle. Norepinephrine alone (control curve) is expected to show an increased response as the dose is increased. A shift to the left indicates potentiation (less norepinephrine is needed to give the same size response), a shift to the right indicates antagonism (more norepinephrine is needed to see a given response). Curve X shows potentiation, curve Y shows competitive antagonism and curve Z shows non-competitive blockade of the alpha-1 receptors found on vascular smooth muscle. The answer must therefore include an indirect agonist, a competitive blocker, and a non-competitive blocker of alpha-1 receptors.
Cocaine is an indirect agonist that acts by blocking monoamine reuptake, thereby allowing norepinephrine to stay longer and at higher concentration in its synapse potentiating its action (curve X). (It also blocks the reuptake of dopamine and serotonin, potentiating them in the same way.) Prazosin is a competitive alpha-1 receptor blocker used in treatment of hypertension because of its vasodilatory effect, and would produce a right shift of the dose response curve (curve Y). Phenoxybenzamine is the only non-competitive alpha-1 blocker used therapeutically in cases of malignant hypertension and pheochromocytomas. The excessive vasodilation produced by this agent is the result of irreversible binding to the receptor, thereby decreasing the efficacy (decreased curie height) of norepinephrine (curve Z). Fluoxetine (choices B and C) is a serotonin specific reuptake blocker that would potentiate the action of serotonin, but not norepinephrine. It is also a weak alpha-1 blocker, which explains its side effect of orthostatic hypotension.
Propranolol (choices B and E) is a non-selective beta-blocker that would not directly effect the norepinephrine response at alpha-1 receptors. Although norepinephrine is also a beta-i receptor agonist, beta-1 receptors are not present on blood vessels.
Phentolamine (choice D) is a non-selective competitive alpha-blocker that has been largely supplanted by more selective alpha-1 blockers. -
Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 pointsA male aged 72 years is diagnosed with prostate cancer. He declines surgical therapy, and is treated with Flutamide. The mechanism of action of this drug is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Nonsteroidal antiandrogens, such as flutamide, bind to cytosolic androgen receptors and competitively inhibit the actions of androgens in target tissues. Decreasing endogenous androgen activity inhibits tumor growth and may contribute to tumor regression. These medications are usually used in conjunction with medical (GnRH analog therapy) or surgical treatments (bilateral orchiectomy) to inhibit testicular androgen production. Inhibition of 5alpha-reductase is the mechanism of action of finasteride, which inhibits the production of dihydrotestosterone. Finasteride is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
Leuprolide is an example of a GnRH analog. Given long-term in a continuous fashion, it will inhibit FSH and LH release, thereby decreasing testosterone production and exacting a chemical castration in men. It can be used in the treatment of prostate cancer, polycystic ovary syndrome, uterine fibroids, and endometriosis. Since LH activates interstitial cells to secrete testosterone, a synthetic LH agonist would not be appropriate treatment for prostatic cancer. The same goes for a testosterone analog. -
Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 pointsA 58 year old man experienced an anaphylactic reaction after a medication to treat his chronic arthritis pain. The patient has a past medical history significant for “sulfa” allergy. He most likely took which drug?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The patient has a past medical history significant for “sulfa” allergies; therefore, he should not be prescribed any medications that contain sulfur or chemically related compounds; Examples of these products include celecoxib, sulfonylureas, sulfamethoxazole, sulfasalzine, and thiazide diuretics. Celecoxib is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is a selective inhibitor of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), indicated for the treatment of mild to moderate pain and inflammation since this medication contains a “sulfa” component, it should not be administered to patients with sulfa allergies. All of the other answer choices can be safely administered to this patient. Acetaminophen possesses analgesic and antipyretic effects, with no anti-inflammatory properties. Aspirin is a salicylate with analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory properties. Ketorolac is an NSAID with analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory properties. Tramadol is a centrally acting synthetic analgesic compound that has action at the mu opiate receptor and may inhibit the uptake of se serotonin and norepinephrine. This agent produces analgesia with little respiratory depression. It is indicated for treatment of moderate to severe pain. -
Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 pointsIn normal volunteers the pharmacokinetic properties of a new drug are being studied during phase I clinical trials. The volume of distribution and clearance determined in the first subject are 40 L and 2.0 L/hour, respectively. What is the half-life of the drug in this subject?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The half life of a drug can be determined using the following equation:
T1/2: (0.7 xVd)/CI
There fore (0.7 x4OL)/2.0 L/hour, and t1/2 = 14 hours. -
Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 pointsA high potency typical antipsychotic agent is studied in neuron in a bath that contains acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin. The studied receptor is the same one that is responsible for the therapeutic efficacy of this agent in schizophrenic patients. Which effect would likely occur intracellularly after addition of this agent to the bath?
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Explanation:
The therapeutic effect of the traditional typical antipsychotic agents correlates best with their affinity for D2 dopamine receptors. The D2 receptor is negatively coupled to adenylate cyclase via G1. Therefore, stimulation of this receptor would decrease cAMP. However, because antipsychotic agents are D2 antagonists, one would predict an increase in cAMP. Examples of receptors that increase cAMP directly via Gs include B adrenergic receptors and the D1 dopamine receptor. Other receptors that decrease cAMP via G1 include the M2 muscarinic and alpha2 adrenergic receptors. Stimulation of receptors coupled to Gq would lead to an increase in IP3 and blockade of receptors coupled to Gq could lead to decrease in IP3 Examples of receptors coupled to Gq include the alpha1 adrenergic, M1 muscarinic, and M3 muscarinic receptors.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 pointsA carotid occlusion experiment is performed before and after giving an antagonist agent. The results of the effects on mean arterial pressure and heart rate are shown above. Which one of the following receptors is most likely blocked by the antagonist?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
During a carotid occlusion, there is less stretch of the carotid baroreceptors and less afferent nerve activity is sent to the medulla by the glossopharyngeal nerve. Essentially, it tricks the body into thinking it has a lower blood pressure than it actually has. As a result, there is an increase in sympathetic tone and a decrease in parasympathetic tone. This is shown by the increase in MAP and HR during the first carotid occlusion. Since the antagonist did not affect the MAP and increased HR the drug is a M2 muscarinic cholinergic receptor antagonist. There is no parasympathetic tone to blood vessels nor are there M2 receptors on them (noninnervated M3 receptors are present). Blocking the M2 receptors on the SA node, however, removes the dominant parasympathetic tone, increasing HR. The second carotid occlusion basically did the same thing as the first one except that the baseline heart rate was higher this time. The antagonist could not be an alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist because the MAP would fall. However, the HR would increase due to a baroreceptor reflex-mediated increase in sympathetic tone and decrease in parasympathetic tone. Because the heart rate increased, it could not be a β1 antagonist because this would cause the HR to decrease. A β2 and a M3 antagonist would have no effect on HR. -
Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 pointsA 31 year old male undergoing surgery for a mitral valve replacement receives 2 units of packed red blood cells, 2 units of fresh frozen plasma, and heparin intraoperatively. After surgery, he recovers well with no large changes in vital signs. Several days later; his platelet level is found to be 85,000/mm3, though the patient remains asymptomatic during this time. The best treatment for this post-surgical complication is
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Explanation:
The complication described in this question is known as heparin induced thrombocytopenia, also known as HIT. It is caused by an IgG autoantibody that reacts with platelet factor 4 (PF4) on the platelet surface and forms a complex with heparin. There are two types of HIT. Type 1 is a nonimmune response to heparin and begins 1-2 days following heparin initiation and occurs in 30% of heparin patients. The resulting thrombocytopenia is mild to moderate; and platelet count rarely falls below 100,000/mm3. Type 2 is immune mediated, and is an uncommon but potential complication in patients receiving heparin intraoperatively. It is characterized by thrombocytopenia, thromboses, and thromboembolic complications. It typically occurs 4-14 days after initiation of heparin administration. Obviously, all heparin should be stopped, but the thrombotic state can be treated by a direct thrombin inhibitor such as lepirudin, bivalirudin, or other derivatives of hirudin. Lepirudin is a highly specific direct inhibitor of thrombin and unlike heparin, its mechanism of action is independent of antithrombin III. Lepirudin forms a compact stoichiometric complex with one molecule of thrombin, neutralizing the actions of thrombin, including thrombin entrapped within previously formed clots.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 pointsA 65 year old man suffers MI due to thrombotic occlusion of the left circumflex coronary artery. An hour later he is admitted to an intensive coronary unit. A thrombolytic agent is given to prevent further extension of myocardial ischemic necrosis. Which investigation is/are most likely to be affected by giving this medication?
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Explanation:
Thrombosis is an important pathologic process that may lead to acute myocardial injury. Among anticoagulant mechanisms are fibrinolytic factors, including plasmin. This fibrinolytic enzyme derives from cleavage of the circulating precursor plasminogen by tissue plasminogen activators. There are two types of plasminogen activators, urokinase-like PA (uPA) and tissue PA (tPA). The latter is produced by endothelial cells and has been used extensively in the early treatment of myocardial infarction to promote lysis of newly formed thrombi. Since thrombolytics like tPA lead to e direct degradation of fibrin and fibrinogen, which are the common to both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways, both PT and PPT should be prolonged. Since tPA does not act on platelets, the platelet count should not be affected. -
Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 pointsNew antihistamine´s pharmacokinetic properties are being studies in normal volunteers during phase I clinical trials. The clearance and half life of the drug are determined to be 4.0 L/hour and 10 hours respectively. Which value is the approximate volume of distribution for this drug?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The volume of distribution of a drug can be determined using the following equation:
t1/2 =(0.7xVd)/CL
Therefore, 10 hours = (0.7 x Vd)/ (4.0 L/hour),
40 hours = 0.7 xVd,
Vd =57 L, which is approximately 60 L. -
Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 pointsA patient is given a skeletal muscle relaxant prior to abdominal surgery. Patient soon begins to have hypotension, bronchospasm, and excessive bronchial and salivary secretions. Which skeletal muscle relaxant did this patient likely receive?
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Explanation:
The symptoms described were caused by drug induced histamine release. Of all the drugs listed, only tubocurarine produces a substantial amount of histamine release. Atracurium would also be appropriate for this procedure. However, it results in much less histamine release than tubocurarine. Baclofen is an antispasmodic but would not be used for this procedure. In addition, it does not cause histamine release. Dantrolene is a skeletal muscle relaxant but would not be used for this procedure; it is instead used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia. In addition, it does not cause histamine release. Vecuronium would also be appropriate for this procedure. However, it does not cause histamine release. -
Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 pointsA 31 year old 36 weeks pregnant woman is told during that her fetus is in a breech presentation. An external cephalic version (manually turning the fetus from the outside) is scheduled for the following week. For this procedure, the uterus must be relaxed. Which medication would be appropriate for achieving this result?
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Explanation:
Stimulation of beta2 receptors causes uterine relaxation. Ritodrine is a beta2 agonist. Terbutaline is also sometimes used. Clomiphene is a nonsteroidal estrogen used in the treatment of infertility. In women, it can improve follicular development and induce ovulation. In men, it can improve spermatogenesis. Phenylephrine is an alpha1 agonist; alpha1 stimulation causes contraction in the pregnant uterus. Progesterone is used in oral contraceptives and in the treatment of dysmenorrhea, dysfunctional uterine bleeding, and endometriosis. Beta2 stimulation causes uterine relaxation; propranolol is a nonspecific beta antagonist. -
Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 pointsA young male has a febrile illness and productive cough with green sputum. CXR reveals patchy opacification of both lung fields. History is significant for cystic fibrosis. Which drug combination match the treatment for his condition?
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Explanation:
This patient with a history of cystic fibrosis and a classic bronchopneumonia to Pseudomonas would best be treated with an antipseudomonal penicillin (ticarcillin) and possibly combined with aminoglycosides because of the synergy between the two. Amoxicillin plus ampicillin uses two similar penicillins with no added benefits. Amoxicillin plus aminoglycosides may not be as good as an antipseudomonal as ticarcillin, but there is synergy with aminoglycosides. The combination of amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid is very effective for beta lactamase producing strains. The combination of vancomycin plus aminoglycosides is effective for enterococci; if possible, vancomycin is reserved for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and enterococci infections, not Pseudomonas. -
Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 pointsA woman with Graves disease is scheduled for a subtotal thyroidectomy. She is given Propylthiouracil to control her hyperthyroidism until surgery. The enzyme inhibited by this drug is involved in which reaction?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Propylthiouracil inhibits thyroid peroxidase, the enzyme that allows the iodide taken up at the base of the thyroid follicular cell to be oxidized to iodine at the apex of the cell. Thyroid peroxidase also catalyzes the oxidative coupling of two diiodotyrosine (DIT) molecules into T4 and of one DIT and one monoiodotyrosine (MIT) into T3. Note: if you knew that thyroid peroxidase was involved in oxidations, then you probably could have arrived at choice A by the process of elimination. Iodide uptake at the base of the follicular cell occurs via an active transport mechanism; thyroid peroxidase is not involved. Iodination of thyroglobulin in the colloid into DIT and MIT does not involve thyroid peroxidase. Proteolysis of the iodinated thyroglobulin into MIT and DIT occurs in the follicular cell and is catalyzed by lysosomal enzymes, not by thyroid peroxidase. Reuptake of iodinated thyroglobulin from the follicular lumen occurs via endocytosis and does not involve thyroid peroxidase. -
Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 pointsA 23 year old man presents with hypertension, tachycardia, an elevated body temperature, diaphoresis, mydriasis, and severe agitation. According to his mother he uses illicit drugs, although she is not sure which kind. Which agent is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?
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Explanation:
The patient described above is probably under the influence of a CNS stimulant, such as methamphetamine. Labetalol is a nonselective alpha and beta antagonist that blocks many of the dangerous peripheral side effects of CNS stimulants, such as hypertension and cardiac stimulation. Other appropriate medications include antipsychotic agents (to control the agitation and psychotic symptoms) and diazepam (to control possible seizures). Supportive care should be given as needed to control the hyperthermia and to maintain respiration. Atropine, which is a muscarinic antagonist, would be an appropriate therapy for an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor overdose. Patients presenting with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor overdose would not be expected to have an elevated body temperature or hypertension. Their eyes would be miotic, not mydriatic. Bradycardia, not tachycardia, would be expected. They would, however, have diaphoresis because of increased cholinergic tone at the sweat glands, which are innervated by sympathetic cholinergics. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist. It is specifically useful in the case of a benzodiazepine overdose. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) type of antidepressant. It would not be indicated in the case of CNS stimulant overdose. Naloxone, which is an opioid receptor antagonist, would be an appropriate therapy for an opiate (e.g., heroin or morphine) overdose. A patient would appear sleepy, lethargic, or comatose, depending on the degree of overdose. Pupils would be miotic, not mydriatic. Blood pressure and heart rate would usually be decreased. Respiration would be depressed. -
Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 pointsA 33 year old male has weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and lethargy. No evidence of edema, orthostatic hypotension, or dehydration is present. Blood samples show hyponatremia, but his urine is highly concentrated. The patient is instructed to drink a large volume of water for water load test and 5 hourly samples of urine are analyzed. All samples show concentrated urine. Which drug caused this condition?
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Explanation:
The patient has the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH (SIADH). When ADH (vasopressin) is secreted in excessive amounts, or at inappropriate times, it can cause hyponatremia as well as symptoms of nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and lethargy. Excessive release of vasopressin also results in the excretion of concentrated urine (with a urinary osmolality usually greater than 300 mOsmol/kg) despite a subnormal plasma osmolality and serum sodium concentration. SIADH can be caused by many factors, such as ectopic ADH production and release from neoplastic tissue (small cell carcinoma of lung, pancreatic carcinoma, lymphosarcoma, Hodgkin disease, reticulum cell sarcoma, thymoma, and carcinoma of duodenum or bladder) or by drugs that release or potentiate the action of ADH, such as carbamazepine, vincristine, vinblastine, cyclophosphamide, chlorpropamide, general anesthetics, and tricyclic antidepressants. Baclofen is a spasmolytic agent. Baclofen has not been shown to be associated with the release of ADH. Dantrolene is a spasmolytic agent and is also used to treat malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene has not been shown to be associated with the release of ADH. Phenelzine and tranylcypromine are MAO inhibitors. MAO inhibitors have not been shown to be associated with the release of H. Phenytoin is an antiseizure drug and has not been shown to be associated with the release of ADH. -
Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 pointsA 65-year-old woman presented 10 hours after ingestion of 12 g of quinine sulphate. Which of the following is the most common characteristic clinical feature in this situation?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
A tachycardia is seen in overdose, not a bradycardia. Quinine may cause tinnitus and deafness, but not hyperacusis. Blindness is a characteristic feature of quinine overdose. Blurred vision may proceed to complete blindness within a few hours. As vision is lost the pupils become dilated and unresponsive to light Initially only narrowing of the retinal arterioles may be seen on fundoscopy but after three days retinal oedema may appear. Hypotension may be a feature, especially in the context of dysrhythmia but I feel that blindness is the ´common characteristic feature. -
Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following mechanisms best explains the action of Ezetimibe?
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Explanation:
Ezetimibelocalises at the brush border of the small: intestine, where it inhibits the absorption of cholesterol from the diet. -
Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 pointsA 19-year-old woman presented six hours after taking 30 g of paracetamol. Which of the following factors is most likely to predict an increased risk of hepatotoxicity from the paracetamol?
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Explanation:
High risk groups in paracetamol overdose include:
- malnourished patients (anorexia nervosa/bulimia nervosa)
- patients taking enzyme inducing drugs (e.g. carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampicin and St John´s wort)
- patients with induced liver enzymes due to chronic ethanol abuse
- human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive patients
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 pointsA patient is suspected of having taken a substance with anticholinesterase effects. Which of the following combinations of signs, if present, would be the most likely to confirm this effect?
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Explanation:
An Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor or Anti-cholinesterase is a chemical that inhibits the cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine (Ach), so increasing both the level and duration of action of the neurotransmitter acetycholine. Ach can stimulate postganglionic receptors to produce effects such as salivation lacrimation, defecation, micturition, sweating, miosis, bradycardia and bronchospasm. Muscarine produces these effects and hence they are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarine receptors. SLUD (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation [and emesis]) is a syndrome of pathological effects indicative of massive discharge of the parasympathetic nervous system. Unlikely to occur naturally, SLUD is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. Nerve gases irreversible inhibit the enzyme
Acetylcholinesterase; this results in a chronically high level of acetylcholine at cholinergic synapses throughout the body, thus chronically stimulating acetylcholine receptors throughout the body. -
Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 pointsOut of the following drugs, which is best to use in a patient with obsessive compulsive disorder?
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Explanation:
Obsessive-compulsive disorder is characterized by recurring, unwanted, anxiety provoking, intrusive ideas, images, or impulses (obsessions) that may even seem silly, weird, nasty, or horrible to the person experiencing them. The person also has urges (compulsions) to do something that will relieve the discomfort caused by the obsessions. Rituals used to control an obsession include the following:
washing or cleaning to be rid of contamination, checking to eliminate doubt (for example, checking to make sure a door is locked), hoarding to prevent loss, avoiding the people who might become objects of aggression. Mainstay of treatment for OCD is with a Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors such as fluoxetine and fluvoxamine, and with clomipramine which is a tricyclic antidepressant. Many experts believe that a combination of exposure therapy and drug therapy is the best treatment. -
Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 pointsFor treating patients with post-traumatic stress disorder which is the most appropriate medication?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
Results of randomized clinical trials demonstrate that medications such as SSRIs, tricyclic antidepressant, and monoamine oxidase inhibitors alleviate the symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and are associated with improvements in overall functioning. SSRIs are a first-line medication because they are safer and better tolerated than other types of psychotropic medications. Sertraline and paroxetine are the only agents that have been approved by the FDA for the treatment of PTSD. -
Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 pointsA 22 year old boy is brought to the ER after being found unresponsive in a street. Physical examination reveals pinpoint pupils unresponsive to light and a respiratory rate of 7 breaths per minute. The most likely cause is which of the following?
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Explanation:
Morphine is the principal constituent of opium.
Morphine is highly addictive. Tolerance (the need for higher and higher doses to maintain the. same effect) and physical and psychological dependence develop quickly. Morphine activates the brain´s reward systems. A Morphine overdose happens when you consume more Morphine than your body can safely handle. Morphine users are constantly flirting with Morphine overdose, and the difference between the high they´re seeking and serious injury or death is often quite small.
Symptoms of a Morphine overdose include: cold clammy skin, flaccid muscles, lowered blood pressure, “pinpoint” or dilated pupils, sleepiness, stupor, coma, slowed breathing (respiratory depression), difficulty breathing and slow pulse rate. -
Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 pointsA 47 year old female complains of exertional dyspnea for past six months. She is diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis (PF). She received a variety of medications over a last one year. Her present condition may be caused by which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Sulphasalazine as well as other rheumatology drugs such as gold and methotrexate can cyclophosphamide rather than vincristine may be responsible. Corticosteroids are sometimes given as a trial in pulmonary fibrosis. Nalidixic acid is associated with seizure and visual disturbances. However nitrofurantoin is well recognized to cause PF. Other drugs include amiodarone and nitrofurantoin. -
Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 pointsThe anticonvulsant medication which is preferred for the treatment of mania or hypomania in patients with bipolar disorder is
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Explanation:
Anticonvulsant medications are used in the treatment of various psychiatric disorders. Valproic acid is FDA-approved for the treatment of manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder. It has been shown in controlled studies to be significantly more effective than placebo.
The initial dosage is 750 mg daily given in divided doses, and most individuals require between 1000 and 2500 mg daily. Carbamazepine has also been used to treat mania and is an alternative for individuals who cannot tolerate lithium or valproic acid. Clonazepam is used in the treatment of panic attacks, and gabapentin is used to treat anxiety.
Both phenytoin and gabapentin are also used to treat peripheral neuropathy. The primary use of Phenobarbital is as an anticonvulsant. -
Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 pointsThe most common side effect of lithium is
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Explanation:
Lithium is commonly used to treat mania and bipolar depression (manic- depression or bipolar disorder).
Tremor is the most common neurological side effect. Lithium tremor is an irregular, non-rhythmic twitching of the arms and legs that is variable in both intensity and frequency. Lithium-induced tremor occurs in approximately half of persons taking this medication. The chance of tremor decreases if the dose is reduced. Acute lithium toxicity (poisoning) can result in neurological side effects, ranging from confusion and coordination impairment, to coma, seizures, and death. Other neurological side effects associated with lithium therapy include lethargy, memory impairment, difficulty finding words, and loss of creativity.
About 30 to 35% of patients experience excessive thirst and urination, usually due to the inability of the kidneys to retain water and sodium. However, lithium is not known to cause kidney damage.
Lithium inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormone. About 10 to 20% of patients treated with lithium develop some degree of thyroid insufficiency, but they usually do not require supplementation with thyroid hormone tablets. -
Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 pointsA 42 year old female develops in a skin rash when she takes trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract infection. The drug that would most likely to cause a similar reaction in this patient is
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Explanation:
Sulfonamides, commonly called sulfa drugs, contain SO2NH2, which is present in numerous therapeutic agents, including the new COX-2 inhibitors such as celecoxib. Celecoxib is contra-indicated in patients with allergy to sulfa- containing drugs (sulfonamides). Such drugs include the antibiotic trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra). Therefore, if you are allergic to sulfa-containing drugs, do not take celecoxib. -
Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 pointsA patient develops acute renal failure after an overdose of methanol. The antidote of choice is
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Explanation:
N-acetyl cysteine regenerates glutathione and prevents toxic metabolism of acetaminophen. Ethanol is an antidote for ethylene glycol and methanol toxicity. Glucagon is an antidote for beta-blocker toxicity. Methylene blue is an antidote for methemoglobinemia, which can occur after the ingestion of nitrites, nitroprusside, dapsone, or antimalarials. Disulfiram inhibits Aldehyde Dehydrogenase in Alcohol metabolism. -
Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 pointsThe drug useful in treatment of iron toxicity is
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Explanation:
Iron toxicity can be treated with deferoxamine, an iron chelator. Acetylcysteine (A) is used in acetaminophen toxicity. Pencillamine (C) is used for copper toxicity (e.g., Wilson´s disease). Methylene blue (D) is used for cyanide toxicity. Glucagon (E) can be used in beta blocker toxicity. -
Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 pointsWarfarin is an anticoagulant used for a variety of cardiac conditions. Which of the following drug does NOT potentiate warfarin´s effects?
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Explanation:
Warfarin (coumadin) is a vitamin K antagonist and therefore inhibits production of coagulation factors 2, 7, 9, and 10, as well as anticoagulation factors proteins C and S. Vitamin K can, therefore, reverse the effect of coumadin. Amiodarone, quinidine, cimetidine, and α-methyldopa potentiate warfarin´s effects. -
Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 pointsAnti-arrhythmic drug that causes lupus like symptoms such as pleural effusions, rash, arthralgia, and positive anti histone antibody is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Procainamide, which is a type I anti-arrhythmic agent, causes drug induced lupus. Hydralazine also does this. Lidocaine in toxic doses causes seizures. Quinidine can cause tinnitus and a prolonged QT internal. Mexilitene is now off the market because it has undesired pro-arrhythmic effects. Beta blockers can cause bradycardia, which can be the desired effect unless it causes congestive heart failure, as well. -
Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 pointsA 26 year old man is brought to the emergency area of a hospital by the police. He had been picked up after making wild threats to people in convenience store. During the interview at the hospital he exhibits delusions of persecution, ideas of reference, and feelings of omnipotence. Multiple needle marks are noted over his arm veins and he agrees using IV drugs. Examination reveals tachycardia, mydriasis, diaphoresis, and agitation. He is treated with chlorpromazine IM, which reverses his psychotic state. The following agent that can be added to his therapeutic regimen to increase the clearance of this drug from his body is
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Explanation:
Long term use of high IV doses of amphetamine almost inevitably induces a paranoid psychosis that can be severe enough to bring patients to psychiatric attention. Fortunately, the more florid symptoms fade within a few days, and the patients, usually eventually recover, although persistence of delusional ideas, confusion, and memory loss may last months. The acutely agitated psychotic state can be treated with either chlorpromazine 25 to 50 mg IM or haloperidol 2.5 to 5 mg IM. Ammonium chloride can be added to the regimen to acidify the urine and hasten amphetamine excretion. Activated charcoal absorbs residual compounds in the stomach after oral ingestion of drugs or poisons. Deferoxamine chelates iron and increases its clearance from the body. Ipecac induces vomiting and is useful for orally ingested drugs. Naloxone is an opiate antagonist.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 pointsA 40 year old woman with acute glaucoma is treated and maintained on the oral agent of choice for this condition. Several weeks later she has an arterial pH of 7.34, an arterial PCO2 of 29mm Hg, and plasma a HCO3- of 15 mFq/ L. Abnormality that this woman most likely developed is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
The laboratory results indicate that the arterial pH, arterial PCO2, and plasma HCO3 concentrations are all low. These changes clearly demonstrate metabolic acidosis, which occurs commonly when a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is administered. The carbonic anhydrase enzyme attached to the brush border of the tubular epithelial cells normally catalyzes the dissociation of carbonic acid into water and carbon dioxide. Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase prevents the removal of bicarbonate ions from the tubular fluid, which initially increases urine pH. The result is heavy spillage of bicarbonate in the urine, which is the hallmark of type 2 RTA (renal tubular acidosis). However, once the plasma levels of bicarbonate have decreased sufficiently, the bicarbonaturia ceases and the plasma HCO3 levels stabilize at a lower than normal level. Consequently, the urine pH falls typically to 4.5- 5.0. -
Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 pointsA 48 year old man is being treated for type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He is also being treated for a mood disorder. He arrives at the ER complaining of a painful erection over the last 7 hours. What is the most likely cause of his current condition?
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Explanation:
Priapism is characterized by the development of a painful erection for an extended period of time. When untreated, priapism can cause severe penile damage that can culminate in impotence. Administration of the antidepressant drug trazodone has been associated with priapism in number of patients. In patients with prolonged or inappropriate penile erection, this medication should be discontinued and medical attention should be sought immediately. Injection of alpha adrenergic stimulants, such as norepinephrine or epinephrine, may be successful in treating the priapism. Surgical intervention is necessary for the treatment of trazodone-induced priapism in many instances.
Atenolol is a beta-1 adrenergic antagonist indicated for the treatment of hypertension. This agent is commonly associated with Impotence in males. Furosemide is a loop diuretic Indicated for the treatment of edema and hypertension; electrolyte abnormalities are the most common side effects seen with this agent. The sulfonylurea glyburide is an oral hypoglycemic agent indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes; hypoglycemia is the most common side effect of this agent. Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used for the treatment of depression. This agent is commonly associated with impotence in males. -
Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 pointsA researcher is studying calcium fluxes in cultured cells using confocal laser scanning microscopy. The magnitude of the signal (brightness) is proportional to the strength of the calcium flux. Strongest signal would be produced by stimulation of which receptor type?
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Explanation:
Alpha-1 receptors activate phospholipase C via the C protein Cq. Phospholipase C cleaves the membrane phospholipid phosphatidylinositol 4, 5-bisphosphateto produce the products inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). IP3 releases intracellular calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum, and would therefore generate a robust signal. DAG activates protein kinase C. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors cause vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels, pupilla dilation, relaxation of sphincters in the gastrointestinal tract and bladder, and pilomotor smooth-muscle contraction.
Beta-1 adrenergic receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase via the G protein Gs, leading to an increase in intracellular cAMP. All beta adrenergic receptors share a common mechanism of action. Dopamine-1 receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase via the G protein Gs. This leads to an increase in intracellular cAMP. Muscarinic-2 acetylcholine receptors inhibit adenylate cyclase via the G protein Gi. This leads to a decrease in intracellular cAMP. Muscarinic receptors also stimulate the opening of potassium channels in the heart, via the beta and gamma subunits of Gi. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors are ligand gated ion channels. When stimulated, they allow sodium ions to enter the cell. -
Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 pointsA premature neonate born at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. This patient´s condition may have been prevented by which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Respiratory distress syndrome is caused by a deficiency of pulmonary surfactant. It occurs in preterm infants because surfactant is not produced in sufficient amounts until late in gestation. Because the lungs lack surfactant, the infant cannot maintain patent alveoli. As the alveoli collapse, the infant must work hard with each successive breath. In utero, surfactant synthesis is modulated by several mediators such as cortisol, insulin, prolactin, and thyroxine. Corticosteroids induce the formation of surfactant lipids, and thus cases of respiratory distress syndrome may be avoided by giving glucocorticoids to the mother. Administering folate to the mother would not reduce the chances of developing respiratory distress syndrome. Early in gestation, during organogenesis, adequate folate prevents neural tube defects. Fluid restricting the mother would not prevent the development of respiratory distress syndrome in the baby. Immediate intubation would not have prevented the progression of respiratory distress syndrome. Administering glucocorticoids to the mothers at the first sign of premature labor reduces the incidence of respiratory distress syndrome. -
Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 pointsA patient is started on a new drug that is noted to decrease sodium reabsorption and increase potassium reabsorption from the distal tubule. The patient was most likely prescribed which medication based on this information?
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Explanation:
The reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubule of the nephron is primarily controlled by the hormone aldosterone. Aldosterone levels are physiologically increased when the plasma levels of potassium or angiotensin II are increased. Captopril is an angiotensin conversion enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and lowers the level of angiotensin II. When angiotensin II levels are lower aldosterone levels subsequently fall. When this occurs, one would expect to see a decrease in sodium reabsorption. Furthermore, ACE inhibitors are known to increase potassium levels. Both acetazolamide and furosemide produce hypokalemia. Allopurinol decrease the production of uric acid in the body. Atenolol is a beta receptor blocking agent with no effect on either potassium or sodium levels. -
Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 pointsA 32 year old female has amenorrhea for the past several months. She also states that there is a “watery secretion” coming from both her nipples. Examination reveals a non-puerperal, watery secretion that does not contain white or red blood cells. Investigation reveals elevated serum prolactin levels. Her signs and symptoms are most likely caused by
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Explanation:
Galactorrhea is a condition in which there is a non-puerperal, watery or milky breast secretion that contains neither pus nor red blood cells. It is defined in women as lactation beyond 6 months postpartum if not breastfeeding and lactation in any time in men. This condition is most commonly associated with hyperprolactinemia. The secretion, occurring with galactorrhea, can occur spontaneously or on breast examination. Hyperprolactinemia can also cause oligomonorrhea or amenorrhea. Hyperprolactinemia can be caused by medications that effect normal pathways for dopamine and norepinephrine Medications most commonly associated with this disorder include tricyclic antidepressants such as nortriptyline, tranquilizers, methyldopa, narcotics, and phenothiazines. Nortriptyline is a tricyclic anudepressant used to treat endogenous depression, The other medications listed are not associated with the development of hyperprolactinemia. Captopril is an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor used in the treatment of hypertension and congestive heart failure. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used in the treatment: of various edematous states. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used in the treatment of mild-to moderate pain. Warfarin is a cournarin anticoagulant used for prophylaxis and treatment of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. -
Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 pointsA 53 year old woman presents to the doctor for a checkup. She is recovering from a wrist fracture after a fall. DEXA of the hip had shown her to have osteoporosis. She became menopausal at age 50 and started hormone replacement therapy because of a strong family history of breast cancer. She now fears a future hip fracture and would like to begin a bone loss prevention regime. Appropriate treatment for this patient is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that helps prevent osteoporosis by lessening bone resorption and reducing bone turnover. It lowers risk for vertebral fractures by 40 to 50%. It is a bone preserving alternative for women who prefer to avoid estrogen, as it is an estrogen agonist in bone tissue but is an antagonist in the breast and uterus. Raloxifene does not cause breast pain and may lessen the risk for breast cancerin menopausal women. There is also a favorable effect on LDL and cholesterol. Calcitonin nasal spray is an osteoclastic bone resorption inhibitor that modestly – increases bone mineral density and reduces the incidence of vertebral fracture. Although it is an estrogen alternative for bone preservation, its impact on hip fracture is not known. It is also lacks the anti-breast cancer properties of raloxifene. Oral conjugated estrogen and transdermal estradiol are not the best choices, as this patient wants to avoid estrogen because of a strong family history of breast cancer. The route of administration of estrogen has been shown to have similar effects on bone preservation, even though the transdermal dosage is generally half that of the oral dosage. Breast cancer risk, however, is slightly increased with the unopposed higher dosage oral estrogen replacement. Tamoxifen while indicated in the long term care of breast cancer patients, alone is not useful for the treatment or prevention of osteoporosis. Tamoxifen is an anti estrogen agent that competes with estrogen for binding sites in the breast and bone, but is an estrogen receptor agonist in the uterus thereby increasing the risk of endometrial cancer. -
Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 pointsA 49 year old overweight male has increased thirst and frequent urination. His blood glucose level is 180 mg/dL. 2 hours after oral administration of 75 grams of glucose, his blood glucose level is 202 mg/dL. Past medical history is unremarkable, except for an anaphylactic reaction that occurred one year ago when he was given trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole for a sinus infection. Which drug should be prescribed based on this information?
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Explanation:
The patient´s initial presentation strongly suggests type 2 diabetes mellitus, which usually begins in middle or late life. Symptoms often develop gradually and include polyuria, polydypsia and ketonuria. Diagnosis is frequently made when an asymptomatic or mildly symptomatic patient is found on routine laboratory examination to have an elevated blood glucose level. A diagnosis can be made after the intake of 75 g of oral glucose yields a blood glucose level after 2hrs > 200 mg/dL on two separate occasions. Therapy with an oral hypoglycemic agent would be appropriate in this case. Since the patient had a documented anaphylactic reaction to trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole, he should not take any “sulfa” drugs, including the sulfonylurea type oral hypoglycemic agents such as chlorpropamide and glipizide. Metformin is a biguanide oral hypoglycemic agent, chemically distinct from the sulfonylureas. This medication is indicated as monotherapy or in conjunction with other oral hypoglycemic agents in the treatment of type 2 diabetes. Glucagon is the drug of choice for the treatment of severe hypoglycemia; this agent would worsen the patient´s hyperglycemia. Propranolol is a non selective beta blocking agent used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac arrhythmias. Beta blockers are contraindicated in diabetics since they “blunt” the appearance of the premenitory signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. -
Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 pointsAn adult with AML is administered a combination therapy that must be given intravenously. This drug´s antineoplastic action results from the inhibition of DNA polymerase and predominant toxicities observed are leukopenia and anemia. What is the likely therapeutic agent prescribed?
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Explanation:
Cytarabine is among the most effective agents for inducing remission of AML and acts by inhibiting DNA polymerase. Cytarabine is typically given with the anthracycline antibiotic, daunorubicin.
Bleomycin is an intercalating agent that complexes iron-forming reactive oxygen species and induces DNA strand breaks. Similar to daunorubicin doxorubicin is an antitumor antibiotic that inserts between DNA bases and induces DNA strand breaks. Etoposide is a topoisomerase inhibitor used in the treatment of testicular cancer, small cell lung carcinoma, and leukemia.
Paclitaxel inhibits mitosis by binding tubulin and preventing degradation of microtubules. This agent is used in the treatment of ovarian cancer, breast cancer, and non small cell lung cancer. -
Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 pointsA 58 year old male has increased thirst and frequent urination. Following the ingestion of 75 g of a glucose solution, he has a blood glucose level of 293 mg/dL. He is started on a diet and exercise program. Which has been shown to exert a therapeutic effect most similar to that seen with diet and exercise in patients with this disease?
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Explanation:
The first step to answering this question is to understand the therapeutic benefits of diet and exercise. In patients with type 2 diabetes the hallmark of any treatment plan includes proper diet and exercise. Diet and exercise are beneficial because they can cause a clinically significant decrease in insulin resistance. Along the same lines, the thiazolidinediones, such as rosiglitazone, exert their mechanism of action by increasing insulin sensitivity. In other words, these agents decrease insulin resistance. The alpha-glucosidase inhibitors such as acarbose work predominantly by decreasing carbohydrate absorption. The biguanides, such as metformin, exert their primary mechanism or action by decreasing hepatic glucose production. As seen with the sulfonylureas, the DPP-4 inhibitors such as vidagliptin and sitagliptin, and the GLP-1 agonists such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase the production or supply of insulin. However, unlike the sulfonylureas, both classes of medications have three additional beneficial therapeutic effects. These therapeutic effects include a decrease in glucagon secretion and the slowing of gastric emptying, as well as an increase in satiety, which may lead to some weight loss. The increased satiety is primarily seen with the GLP-1 agonists. -
Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 pointsA 66 year old male has shaking chills and a temperature of 101°F. Investigation reveals a hematocrit of 23%, and urine tests are positive for blood. He is taking only one medication for his “irregular heartbeat.” The drug that likely caused the appearance of these signs and symptoms is
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Explanation:
Hemolytic anemia is a disorder in which red blood cell survival is decreased, either episodically or continuously. Although the bone marrow has the ability to increase erythroid production, this type of anemia is typically seen when the bone marrow is unable to compensate for the marked hemolysis of red blood cells. Since red blood cells typically survive for 120 days, the hematocrit will fall at a rate of 1% per day, in the absence of red blood cell production. The mechanism for the hemolytic anemia in this patient is related to the formation of an immune complex between a circulating red blood cell and quinidine, a medication used in the treatment of premature atrial, AV junctional, and ventricular contractions, as well as various other arrhythmias. Since the immune complex is viewed as foreign, the red blood cell in this complex is lysed by the complement system. The quinidine molecule then dissociates from the lysed red blood cell and binds to another red blood cell to repeat the process. This recycling of drug antibody complex accounts for the dramatic decrease in the hematocrit. Digoxin is typically used to treat atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and paroxysmal atrial tachycardia. Digoxin is not associated with the development of hemolytic anemia. Hydralazine is a vasodilator used in the treatment of essential hypertension. Although it is not associated with the development of hemolytic anemia, it has been known to cause a lupus-like syndrome. Neither propranolol, a beta-blocker, nor verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, is associated with the development of hemolytic anemia. -
Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 pointsAn 81 year old woman presents complaining of difficulty sleeping and problems coping throughout the day since the recent death of her husband. She requests a medication that will help her through this time of her life. Oxazepam is prescribed. What is the most likely rationale behind prescribing this drug?
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Explanation:
Phase I metabolism, which is accomplished largely by cytochrome P450, becomes less efficient with age. Phase II metabolism, which conjugates drugs to yield polar, inactive metabolites, is not generally affected by age. Oxazepam is a benzodiazepine that does not require phase I metabolism; it simply undergoes conjugation, making it a useful drug for elderly individuals. Lorazepam is the other benzodiazepine that undergoes only phase II metabolism. These two drugs are also useful for patients with liver failure; phase I metabolism can be severely affected by liver failure. -
Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 pointsAn elderly male has ringing in his ears, blurred vision, and upset stomach. He is taking multiple medications. He has had a few episodes of confused, delirious behavior over the past few weeks. The drug responsible for his symptoms is
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Explanation:
The collection of symptoms described above-tinnitus, blurred vision, gastrointestinal upset, and delirium-is known as cinchonism, a side effect of quinidine toxicity. EKG changes, such as prolongation of the QT and QRS intervals, may also occur. Quinidine is an antiarrhythmic used for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias and atrial fibrillation. Allopurinol is used in the treatment of gout. Its side effects include rash and fever. Hydralazine is a vasodilator used for the treatment of hypertension. Side effects include tachycardia, headache, nausea, and a lupus like syndrome in slow acetylators.
Niacin is used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia. Its side effects include cutaneous flushing and pruritus. Spironolactone is a potassium sparing diuretic that blocks the effect of aldosterone at its receptor. Side effects include hyperkalemia and gynecomastia. -
Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 pointsA smoker aged 57 years with a long history of chronic obstructive lung disease presents with a blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg. The antihypertensive medication that is CONTRAINDICATED in this patient is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
The point of this question is that nonselective beta blockers are contraindicated in patients with lung disease. These agents will cause bronchoconstriction by blocking the beta2 receptors responsible for promoting bronchial smooth muscle relaxation (recall that beta2 agonists are a mainstay of asthma therapy). Acebutolol, atenolol, esmolol, and metoprolol are all cardioselective beta, blockers that could be used in a patient with lung/airway disease. Another cardioselective blocker that is not listed is betaxolol. As for nadolol, it is a nonselective beta-blocker and should NOT be used in a patient with lung disease. -
Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 pointsA 72-year-old man is treated for chest infection. For past 6 months,he is receiving Warfarin for atrial fibrillation with normal INR. However, his most recent INR was 5.2 (<1.4).Which one of the following drugs is responsible?
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Explanation:
Clarithromycin induces the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, whereas rifampicin would reduce the anticoagulant effect. Ciprof1oxacin and sulphonamides will also increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Temazepam, digoxin and codeine have no appreciable effect. -
Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 pointsWhat is the resultant effect when partial opioid agonists are used in association with morphine?
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Explanation:
Partial opioid agonists (for example, buprenorphine) when used in association with morphine may produce a reduction in its analgesic effect due to partial antagonism.
This is an aspect of pain management that needs to be considered when using combination therapies. -
Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 pointsA 58-year-old male with diabetes requests Sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following are contraindicated with Sildenafil?
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Explanation:
Sildenafil is contraindicated if the patient is taking nitrates, or nitrate derivatives (nicorandil). We are informed on the prescribing that if the patient takes nitrates then they should be stopped for the period during which sildenafil is used. -
Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 pointsBy replenishing which of the following compounds does N-acetylcysteine function as an antidote in paracetamol overdose?
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Explanation:
Paracetamol is predominantly metabolized to glucuronide and sulphate conjugates which are excreted in the urine.
Hepatotoxicity is related to the conversion of a small proportion of the ingested dose to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine.
In therapeutic doses N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine is detoxified by conjugation with glutathione in the liver, but once the protective intracellular glutathione stores are depleted hepatic and renal damage may ensue.
NAC and methionine replenishes glutathione stores in the liver and may also act through its sulphhydryl (-SH) group as a direct reducing agent. -
Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 pointsA man aged 46 year is diagnosed pulmonary tuberculosis. Which one of the following investigations is essential prior to starting antituberculous therapy?
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Explanation:
Hepatotxicity is a feature of antituberculous treatment. “Liver function should be checked before treatment for clinical cases.” -
Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 pointsA 50 year old female who has had low back pain for several years is admitted to the hospital because the pain has suddenly worsened. She is currently taking oxycodone, amitriptyline, perphenazine, fluoxetine and trazodone. On physical examination, the patient is 10% below her ideal body weight, pupils are constricted and skin turgor is poor. She seems sluggish and her speech is slow. Results of neurologic examination and radiographs of the lumbosacral spine are normal. Which of the following medication you suspect as the cause of her mental symptoms?
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Explanation:
The question gives you the classic sign of opiate use: constricted pupils. Prolonged use of opiates may also induce depression. Amitriptyline can cause weight gain, and does not cause pupil constriction. Fluoxetine may result in mild weight loss of two to five pounds, but does not cause pupil constriction. Neither perphenazine nor trazodone cause pupillary constriction. -
Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 pointsDefinitely indicated in all patients with prosthetic valves, mitral stenosis, and cardiomegaly:
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Explanation:
Warfarin is definitely indicated in the management of atrial fibrillation in all patients at risk for giving off emboli. All the diagnoses listed in this description are associated with an increased risk of emboli and should be anticoagulated with Coumadin. Warfarin is the only anticoagulant listed. -
Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 pointsThe beta blocker that would be most useful for lowering blood pressure while minimizing bradycardia is
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Explanation:
Labetalol has beta and alpha-adrenergic blockade. Labetalol causes blood pressure to drop more significantly than heart rate compared to other beta blockers like propranolol (A), metoprolol (cardioselective) (C), or esmolol (IV infusion, short-acting) (D). -
Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 pointsA 77 year old woman is diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer. The neoplasm is found to be hormonally responsive and treatment was started with Tamoxifen. Which of the following is NOT a major side effect of tamoxifen?
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Explanation:
Tamoxifen, a widely used therapy for post-menopausal women with metastatic breast cancers, has the adverse effects of hot flashes, uterine bleeding, thrombophlebitis, and rash. There is no evidence of fluid retention with tamoxifen use. -
Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 pointsThe pharmacologic agents that is most useful for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is
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Explanation:
Propranolol is the pharmacologic agent of choice for single event phobias. Buspirone, an anxiolytic agent, is utilized for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder. Fluoxetine, or Prozac, is used for the treatment of obsessive compulsive disorder. Imipramine is a tricyclic anti depressant which is used for the treatment of panic disorder. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine which is used for the treatment of post-traumatic stress disorder. -
Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 pointsThe therapeutic agent that has the greatest activity against anaerobes such as Bacteroides fragilis is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Clindamycin is effective against anaerobic organisms such as bacteroides and Clostridium spp. Also effective against anaerobic infection is metronidazole. However, cefotaxime, streptomycin, erythromycin, and trimethroprim-sulfamethoxazole are not effective against anaerobes. -
Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT a side effect of thiazide diuretics?
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Explanation:
Hypokalemia is a side effect of thiazide diuretics, along with hyponatremia, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia, and pancreatitis. -
Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 pointsBronchospasm is most likely caused by which one of the following antihypertensive agent?
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Explanation:
Captopril, an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor) can reduce renal perfusion and thus cause hyperkalemia. Lasix, a potent loop diuretic, can increase renal losses and thus cause hypokalemia. Hydralazine can produce arthralgias, fever, and serum sickness similar to systemic lupus erythematosus. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can produce bronchospasm. -
Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 pointsCefuroxime is believed prescribed to a 52 year old smoker to treat a potential bacterial bronchitis. What is the mechanism of action of Cefuroxime?
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Explanation:
Cephalosporins, such as cefuroxime, are believed to exert their antibacterial effect by binding to one or more of the penicillin binding proteins located on the cell walls of susceptible organisms. This action results in the inhibition of the third; and final, stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis. This is also the mechanism of action of the penicillins. Cefuroxime is a second generation cephalosporin used to treat infections in the lower respiratory and urinary tracts, as well as otitis media. It is also efficacious in the treatment of g gonorrhea and is used for perioperative prophylaxis in various surgical procedures, such as coronary artery bypass grafting. Sulfonamide antibiotics, such as sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim, exert their antibacterial effect through the competitive inhibition of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) thereby inhibiting folic acid biosynthesis required for bacteria growth. Quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin, inhibit DNA gyrase, which is an enzyme necessary for bacterial DNA replication and repair. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, irreversibly bind to the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis. Lincosamides, such as clindamycin, irreversibly bind to the 50S subunit of bacteria ribosomes, suppressing bacterial protein synthesis. Note that macrolides, such, as erythromycin, reversibly bind to the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosome. -
Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 pointsTesting of a new antifungal medication is being conducted in phase I clinical trials. Examination of the drug´s pharmacokinetic properties reveals that the drug´s half life is 6 hours. If a continuous intravenous infusion of this drug were started on a research subject, how much time would it take to reach 75% of steady state?
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Explanation:
The half- life (t1/2) of a drug is the time required for serum concentration to decrease by one half (50%) after absorption and distribution are complete. The rule of thumb is that the plasma concentration will reach 50% in one half live, 75% in two half lives, 87.5% in three half lives, etc., so that the difference between the current drug level and 100% halves with each half-life. It takes four to five half-lives to reach steady state. In this instance, it takes two half lives to reach 75%. The half life of this drug is 6 hours so two half lives is 12 hours. -
Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 pointsA 25 year old man presents to the emergency department with crushing substernal pain of hour´s duration. ECG reveals an ST segment elevation, and the patient is given a medication that will break down fibrin thrombi. The most common complication of this medication is
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Explanation:
Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) (produced by recombinant DNA technology) can both cause hemorrhage. They are indicated in the management of acute myocardial infarction, acute ischemic stroke, and pulmonary embolism. These agents are known as “clot busters” because of their mechanism of action: they bind to fibrin in a thrombus and convert the entrapped plasminogen to plasmin, which initiates fibrinolysis and essentially dissolves the thrombus. Since they are thrombolytic, bleeding (or hemorrhage) is the most common complication. The bleeding can be divided into two broad categories: (1) internal bleeding involving the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts, as well as intracranial sites; and (2) superficial bleeding.
Anaphylactic reactions are a possibility seen with administration of streptokinase only. Since tPA is produced by recombinant DNA technology, the incidence of anaphylactic reactions is very low. In other words, this compound is essentially the same as the tPA produced in the human body. Cardiac arrhythmias have occurred with tPA use secondary to thrombolysis with reperfusion; however, the incidence is very low. Hypotension is also a rare side effect of tPA therapy. Although the mechanism of tPA is to “dissolve blood clots,” there is a very low occurrence of thrombosis secondary to the use of this agent. -
Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 pointsA 65 year old chronic alcoholic man is brought to the ER after being found down in an alley. His shirt is bloody. Accurate history cannot be obtained. Examination reveals pallor, dyspnea, tachypnea, and obtundation. BP is low and his pulse rate increased. Endoscopy confirms, active esophageal bleeding. What medication would appropriate to help control his bleeding?
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Explanation:
Portal hypertension is a common consequence of chronic liver disease and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, ascites, and the development of gastric or esophageal varices, Rupture of varices can lead to massive gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Octreotide is a synthetic analog of somatostatin that decreases blood flow to the portal system, thus decreasing variceal bleeding. Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist that is used as an antiemetic and to promote gastrointestinal motility in patients with gastroparesis. Misoprostol is a PGM derivative that is used to treat gastric ulcers caused by NSAIDs. Ranitidine is an H2 antagonist used to inhibit gastric acid secretion. Sibutramine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to reduce appetite. -
Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 pointsA 24 year old epileptic is maintained on primidone. Liver biopsy shows increased amounts of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Increase in the activity of which of the following is most closely related with this change?
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Explanation:
Primidone has anticonvulsant activity as a result of its two metabolites, phenobarbital (a barbiturate) and phenylethylmalonamide (PEMA). Phenobarbital is a potent hepatic microsomal enzyme (cytochrome P450 mixed function oxidase system) inducer, which will increase and/or after the metabolism of other medications metabolized by this same hepatic enzyme system, Increased P450 synthesis requires enhanced transcription and translation, which is mediated by receptors on the hepatic smooth endoplasmic reticulum. The cytochrome P450 mixed function oxidase system is involved in the detoxification of some drugs and other exogenous compounds (barbiturates, carcinogenic hydrocarbons, steroids, carbon tetrachloride, alcohol, insecticides), and its growth can be stimulated by exposure (particularly chronic exposure) to these agents. As a consequence, cells adapted to one drug can more rapidly metabolize the other drugs and compounds handled by the P450 system. -
Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 pointsA 58 year old man is given antibiotic therapy for Pseudomonas aeruginosa with ceftazidime and gentamicin. Assuming that the half live of gentamicin is 3 hours in this patient, what percentage of the initial dose will most likely remain in his body after 6 hours?
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Explanation:
The half life of a medication is the time required for one half the total amount of the medication to be excreted from the body. For any given first order elimination process, 50% the remaining amount of drug is eliminated at the end of the first half life, 50% of the remaining amount, of drug in the body is eliminated at the end of the second half-live, and soon. Therefore, after 3 hours 50% of the gentamicin will be remaining in the bony. After another 3 hours (6 hours total), 50% of the remaining 50% will be eliminated. In other words, after 6 hours 75% of the gentamicin will be eliminated, and 25% of the initial dose will remain. -
Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 pointsA patient is given an immunosuppressive drug that inhibits de novo purine synthesis and is myelosuppressive. Later dose reduction is needed because he is also taking Allopurinol. The drug likely used is
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Explanation:
Azathioprine is converted to 6-mercaptopurine, which inhibits DNA synthesis and subsequent cell proliferation. Xanthine oxidase is instrumental in the metabolism of azathioprine metabolites, thus co-administration with allopurinol (an inhibitor of xanthine oxidase) can result in azathioprine toxicity.
Abatacept is as selective costimulation modulator that inhibits T-cell activation and is indicated for rheumatoid arthritis.
Cyclosporine and tacrolimus inhibit calcineurin mediated transcription of interleukin production, which reduces subsequent T-cell activation. Mycophenolate mofetil is converted to the active metabolite mycophenolic acid, which inhibits de novo guanine nucleotide synthesis and subsequent lymphocyte proliferation, these agents are both indicated for organ transplants but are not as likely to be affected by allopurinol. -
Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 pointsA woman aged 65 years who received antineoplastic therapy 3 weeks earlier, is seen by her physician. ECG shows persistently reduced voltage of the QRS complex. Echocardiography indicates a prolonged systolic time interval and reduced ejection traction. Which agent was most likely included in her antineoplastic regimen?
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Explanation:
The antineoplastics, as a class of medications, are associated with several common side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, alopecia, and bone marrow suppression. However, some antineoplastics are associated with specific types of toxicity. For example, doxorubicin and daunorubicin are associated with cardiotoxicity. These agents can cause congestive heart failure and/or cardiomyopathy for up to several weeks after discontinuation of therapy. A patient with cardiotoxicity secondary to doxorubicin may present with a persistently reduced voltage of the QRS complex, a prolonged systolic time interval, and a reduced ejection fraction. This agent is also commonly associated with the development of alopecia, bone marrow depression, and stomatitis. Bleomycin may produce pulmonary fibrosis, edema of the hands, stomatitis, and alopecia. Cisplatin is associated with severe nausea and vomiting, renal dysfunction, and acoustic nerve dysfunction. Etoposide most commonly causes alopecia and bone marrow depression. Vincristine causes peripheral neuritis, areflexia, muscle weakness, paralytic ileus, and mild bone marrow depression. -
Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 pointsA 57 year old man has difficulty initiating movements and a resting tremor. On examination, his face appears expressionless and he has a slow shuffling gait. He is started on selegiline. The mechanism of action of this drug is
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Explanation:
This question allows us to review the various mechanisms of action of the antiparkinsonian drugs. Selegiline inhibits the degradation of dopamine by MAO type B. Carbidopa works by inhibiting dopa decarboxylase. Carbidopa is unable to cross the blood brain barrier; therefore, it prevents the conversion of levodopa (L-dopa) to dopamine in the periphery, but this conversion still occurs in the brain. This significantly reduces the dosage of L-dopa required to achieve an effect and is generally used in combination with L-dopa. Bromocriptine and pergolide are dopaminergic receptor agonists. Bromocriptine is typically administered in combination with levodopa. It is also useful in end stage Parkinson disease, when L-dopa loses its effectiveness because of progressive degeneration of the nigrostriatal neurons. L-dopa is a precursor of dopamine. At higher doses, it has many side effects and is therefore often used in combination with carbidopa or bromocriptine. Tolcapone is a COMT inhibitor that increases the efficacy of L-dopa. Note that muscarinic antagonists (e.g., benztropine, biperiden, procyclidine, trihexyphenidyl) are also used as adjuncts to the dopaminergic agents in the treatment of parkinsonism. Recall that dopaminergic neurons have an inhibitory effect on striatal cholinergic interneurons. So, if there is a decrease in dopaminergic activity (e.g., as in Parkinson disease), there will be an increase in striatal ACh. Therefore, administration of these anticholinergics aids in maintaining a dopamine/acetylcholine balance in the striatum. -
Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 pointsA female infant´s genetic analysis with a broad, enlarged neck demonstrates an XO karyotype. When she reaches puberty, hormone replacement therapy should be started with which agents?
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Explanation:
The infant has Turner syndrome, in which only one sex chromosome, the X chromosome, is present as a result of chromosomal loss early after fertilization of the egg. The chromosome loss can occur either in all cells, or only in part of the body, because of random X-chromosome inactivation, producing the variant known as a Turner mosaic. Affected infants often have a prominent “webbed” neck related to lymphatic stasis in the neck, sometimes producing a frank cystic hygroma (large cystic mass composed of dilated lymphatic channels). Edema of the dorsum of the hands and feet caused by similar mechanisms is also seen in these infants. An infant with these clinical features should have a chromosomal analysis. Affected infants should also be carefully checked for cardiac anomalies (notably preductal coarctation of the aorta and aortic stenosis with endocardial fibroelastosis), since congenital heart disease can cause early death. By puberty, the neck and extremity edema generally has resolved, but careful physical examination often reveals residual redundant skin of the neck and shoulders, producing the mature form of webbed neck. Mosaic patients and patients with partial deletions of one X chromosome may present only at puberty with the combination of short stature and primary amenorrhea. The ovaries (usually not biopsied in obvious cases) lose all their oocytes by 2 years of age (“menopause before menarche”) and become atrophic fibrous strands without ova or follicles (“streak ovaries”). Hormonal replacement in Turner patients should include both estrogens and progestins, since unopposed estrogens can cause atypical adenomatous hyperplasia of the endometrium. Insulin replacement is not required in these patients. Replacement of progestin alone is not recommended. Thyroid hormone replacement is not required in these patients. -
Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 pointsA 47 year old type 2 diabetic on daily extended release glipizide presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Lab data reveals blood glucose of 192mg/dL. Her diabetes had been well controlled and that she had been symptom free for the past 8 years. Recently, however, she began taking medication for hypertension. Which antihypertensive is she most likely taking?
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Explanation:
The fact that the patient had well-controlled diabetes until the addition of an antihypertensive medication suggests that the new agent is responsible for increasing the blood glucose level. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that is known to increase fasting blood glucose in diabetic patients. Dosage adjustments of both oral hypoglycemic agents, like glipizide, and insulin may be required to maintain euglycemia. None of the other agents would directly increase the blood glucose level in this patient. Thus, all these agents are considered to be safe and effective for the treatment of hypertension in diabetic patients. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, and enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can both be used in the treatment of hypertension in diabetic patients. Because these agents have favorable side effect profiles, their use in the initial treatment of hypertension would be recommended, particularly the ACE inhibitor because it protects against nephropathy. Both methyldopa, a centrally acting alpha receptor agonist, and terazosin, a peripherally acting alpha receptor blocking agent, can be used to treat hypertension in diabetic patients. Because of their side effect profiles, however, these agents should be used after other more tolerable agents have been attempted. -
Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 pointsA 34 year old patient with a history of asthma is being treated for symptoms of hypertension. The beta blockers would be an appropriate therapy for this patient is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
If the patient has asthma, you should select a drug that blocks beta1 receptors without affecting the beta2 receptors found in the respiratory smooth muscle. Therefore, a selective beta1 blocker (such as metoprolol) would be appropriate. Isoproterenol is a (nonselective) beta agonist, not antagonist. Labetalol is a mixed alpha and nonselective beta antagonist used for chronic hypertension and hypertensive emergencies. Propranolol is a nonselective beta antagonist. It would block both betas and beta2 receptors and would therefore be contraindicated in a patient with asthma. Timolol is also a nonselective beta antagonist that is used topically in the treatment of glaucoma. -
Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 pointsA 57 year old man with hypertension and a past medical history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atenolol. How will this drug lower his blood pressure?
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Explanation:
Atenolol is a beta adrenergic receptor blocking agent used in the treatment of hypertension. Medications in this drug class lower blood pressure by reducing both cardiac output and decreasing renin release from the kidney (to a lesser extent). Blocking catecholamine release from peripheral sympathetic nerves is the antihypertensive effect seen with peripherally acting adrenergic neuron blockers (e.g., guanethidine and bretylium). Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Diuretics decrease intravascular volume, which ultimately leads to a reduction in blood pressure. Increasing renin release from the kidney would increase, not decrease, blood pressure. -
Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 pointsA 47 year old woman is under treatment for breast carcinoma. For the past few days, she has been complaining of dysuria and frequency. Investigation reveals the presence of microscopic hematuria. Next day the patient develops gross hematuria. Which drug could be used to treat the side effect from the medication taken by her?
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Explanation:
Mesna traps acrolcin, a by-product of cyclophosphamide therapy. Cyclophosphamide is metabolized to acrolein, which is excreted in the urine. If the patient´s urine is concentrated, this toxic metabolite may cause severe bladder damage. Early symptoms of bladder toxicity include dysuria and frequency. This can be distinguished from a urinary tract infection, since there is no bacteriuria with cyclophosphamide induced bladder toxicity. However, microscopic hematuria is often present on urinalysis. In severe hemorrhagic cystitis, large segments of the bladder mucosa may be shed, which can lead to prolonged, gross hematuria. The incidence of cyclophosphamide induced hemorrhagic cystitis can be decreased by ensuring that the patient maintains a high fluid intake. Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent used in the treatment of breast carcinoma, malignant lymphoma, multiple myeloma, and adenocarcinoma of the ovary, as well as various other forms of cancer. The major toxic reactions commonly seen with this agent include mucositis, nausea, hepatotoxicity, sterile hemorrhagic and non hemorrhagic cystitis, leukopenia, neutropenia, and interstitial pulmonary fibrosis. Mitomycin is an antibiotic, antineoplastic agent used in the treatment of breast carcinoma and adenocarcinoma of the pancreas and stomach, as well as various other forms of cancer. The major toxic reactions commonly seen with this agent include bone marrow depression, nausea, hepatotoxicity, acute bronchospasm, thrombocytopenia, and interstitial pneumonitis. Paclitaxel is an antineoplastic agent primarily used in the treatment of ovarian and breast cancer. The major toxic reactions commonly seen with this agent include bone marrow depression, nausea, hepatotoxicity, bronchospasm, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia. Tamoxifen is an antineoplastic hormone primarily used in the palliative treatment of estrogen receptor positive breast cancer patients. The major toxic reactions commonly seen with this agent include depression, dizziness, thrombosis, mild leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Vincristine is a mitotic inhibitor antineoplastic agent used in the treatment of breast cancer, Hodgkin disease, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, advanced testicular cancer, and various other types of cancer. -
Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 pointsA 58 year old man with a history of MI has shortness of breath. On exam, his heart rate is 110/min, respiratory rate is 22/min and has peripheral edema. Auscultation reveals normal sinus rhythm with an S3 gallop. Ejection fraction is reduced. Which drug would alleviate his symptoms by reducing both the preload and afterload on the heart without affecting its isotropic state?
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Explanation:
Everything in this case points to congestive heart failure (CHF): dyspnea, elevated heart rate, S3, peripheral edema, and reduced ejection fraction. A drug that will alleviate the symptoms by decreasing both preload and afterload is necessary. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors (captopril, enalapril, lisinopril) work by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in the lungs. Angiotensin II is both a potent vasoconstrictor and a stimulator of aldosterone production. Aldosterone acts by promoting sodium (and thus water) reabsorption by the kidney. An ACE inhibitor will therefore promote vasodilatation (reducing afterload), as well as reduce intravascular volume (decreasing preload). It does not affect the heart´s isotropic state. Although digoxin is a mainstay in the therapy of CHF, it has no effect on either preload or afterload. Instead, it works by having a positive inotropic effect on the heart. The mechanism involves inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase and a consequent increase in intracellular calcium, which, in turn, increases the heart´s contractile force. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker. As their name implies, calcium channel blockers block the influx of calcium (via specific calcium channels) into the cell from the extracellular fluid; this interferes with excitation contraction coupling in cardiac muscle, producing a negative inotropic effect. Although these drugs can be used in the treatment of hypertension and angina (they inhibit the contraction of the vascular smooth muscle and thereby decrease peripheral vascular resistance/afterload), they are contraindicated in patients with CHF because of their negative inotropic effect. Furosemide is a loop diuretic. It decreases intravascular volume (and hence, preload), but at typical doses has no significant effect on either afterload or isotropic state. Diuretics are often used in the treatment of CHF, and furosemide is used for the immediate relief of pulmonary congestion. Propranolol is a beta blocker. It has a negative inotropic effect on the heart and is therefore contraindicated in patients with CHF. -
Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 pointsA 44 year old woman is brought to the hospital after collapsing on the sidewalk in front of the hospital. Initial evaluation reveals severe hypotension, and she is given intravenous norepinephrine. Which drug antagonizes both the vascular and cardiac actions of the given medication?
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Explanation:
Norepinephrine (NE) is an agonist at α1, α2, and β1 receptors. NE exerts is vascular actions via alpha (predominantly alpha1) receptors and its cardiac actions via β1 receptors. Carvedilol is a non selective antagonist at alpha and beta receptors and therefore could prevent all actions of NE. Atenolol and esmolol are selective β1 antagonists and therefore would block only the cardiac effects of NE. Metaproterenol is a selective β2 agonist and so would not block NE´s effects. Prazosin is a selective α1 antagonist and would therefore block most of NE´s actions in the vasculature, but would not antagonize other effects. -
Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 pointsCorrect statement regarding Oseltamivir is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Oseltamivir (Tamiflu), like its predecessor zanamivir (Relenza) functions as an antiviral through inhibition of the enzyme neuraminidase inhibitor, thus slowing viral replication down rather than directly killing the virus particle. This slowing down of replication is important in permitting time for the body´s own immune system to deal with the virus. Unlike inhaled zanamivir, oseltamivir is administered orally. However, viral replication is rapid and to be effective, the drug must be given as early as possible after the development of symptoms of flu and preferably within 48 hours. There is evidence to support its use as a prophylactic agent against influenza and it is also generally free from serious side effects. -
Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 pointsWhich term best describes the affinity of a drug for its receptor?
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Explanation:
Affinity is the measure of the net molecular attraction between a drug (or neurotransmitter or hormone) and its receptor. The receptor´s affinity for binding a drug determines the concentration of drug required to form a significant number of drug-receptor complexes. Affinity and intrinsic are determinants of potency.
Efficacy contributes both to potency and to be the maximum effect of the agonist.
Efficacy is a measure of the efficiency of the drug-receptor complex in initiating the signal transduction process. -
Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 pointsAn alcoholic male of 39 year of age has successfully completed outpatient alcohol detoxification and has plans to participate in Alcoholics Anonymous. The medication that can help in relapse prevention is which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Pharmacological agents can be useful adjunct to counselling in preventing relapse in patients with alcohol dependence. Naltrexone and disfulfiram are currently approved by the FDA for treatment of alcohol- dependent patients. Bupropion is of value for smoking cessation and mirtazaphine is an antidepressant. Naloxone is used to treat opioid overdose and fluazmenil to treat benzodiazaphine overdose. -
Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent?
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Explanation:
Moxonidine is centrally acting and is licensed for mild to moderate hypertension not controlled by beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, calcium channel antagonists and thiazides. Moxonidine is a selective agonist at the imidazoline subtype1 receptor. This receptor subtype is found in the medulla oblongata. Moxonidine causes a decrease in sympathetic nervous system activity and therefore, a decrease in blood pressure. Hexamethonium and trimethaphan are nicotinic blockers that act in the ganglia and are very efficacious but have too many side effects. Guanethidine and reserpine block adrenergic nerve terminals. -
Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 pointsWhich side effect induced by traditional neuroleptic agents responds to treatment with Beta- blockers?
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Explanation:
Rigidity, sialorrhea, and stopped posture are parkinsonian side effects of neuroleptic drugs. These are treated with anticholinergic drugs such as benztopine or amantadine. Dystonia, often manifested as an acute spasm of the muscles of the head and neck, also responds to anticholinergics. Akathisia (motor restlessness and an inability to sit still) can be treated with either anticholinergic drug of Beta-blockers. -
Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 pointsAll of the following are chelating agents EXCEPT
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Explanation:
Solganol is not a chelating agent. It is a gold salt used as an intramuscular injection in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Penicillamine, British anti-Lewisite (BAL). EDTA and dimercaptosuccinic acid are all chelating agents. Penicillamine is also used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. -
Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 pointsA type 1 anti-arrhythmic useful in converting atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm.
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Explanation:
Quinidine is the only type I anti- arrhythmic listed. -
Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 pointsAdministration of diuretics is recommended for all of the following conditions EXCEPT
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Explanation:
Asymptomatic peripheral edema is not an indication for diuretic administration. Diuretics are recommended in all of the others. In acute oliguria, diuresis is frequently attempted as an initial effort to increase renal output. Some diuretics, such as acetazolamide, help to make the urine more alkaline and are helpful in increasing excretion of substances such as aspirin in cases of overdose or poisoning. They are used for all the rest conditions. -
Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 pointsThe primary mechanism of action of antacids in treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is which of the following?
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Explanation:
Omeprazole inhibits the hydrogen-potassium ATPase pump inhibitor and is a potent suppressor of acid production. Cimetidine is a histamine2 receptor antagonist and also decreases acid production. Sucralfate offers local mucosal protection. Metronidazole is part of a multiple drug therapy aimed at the eradication of Helicobacter pylori, which has been demonstrated in peptic ulcer disease. Antacids chemically neutralize acid. -
Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 pointsA hypertensive presents with a dry, hacking cough. He is taking captopril, which is an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of ACE inhibitors?
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Explanation:
Gynecomastia is a side effect of the diuretic spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Cough is the main side effect of captopril and other ACE inhibitors. The cough is related to bradykinin, which binds to the receptors in the lungs and causes a dry cough. Taste disturbance is secondary to the sulfhydryl group in the captopril substance. Bone marrow suppression and neutropenia is common in patients who take ACE inhibitors and have underlying connective tissue disease and renal dysfunction. Proteinuria and hyperkalemia are more common in patients who have renal dysfunction and also take ACE inhibitors. Rash and proteinuria are both secondary to the sulfhydryl group in ACE inhibitors. -
Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT a side effect of thiazide diuretics?
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Explanation:
Hypokalemia is a side effect of thiazide diuretics, along with hyponatremia, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia, and pancreatitis. -
Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 pointsA lupus like reaction is most likely caused by which antihypertensive agent?
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Explanation:
Hydralazine is the antihypertensive agent to most likely cause hyperkalemia. -
Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 pointsNausea, vomiting, seizures, and arrhythmias are caused by toxic levels of theophylline. Which one of the following CANNOT increase theophylline levels?
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Explanation:
Smoking increases theophylline clearance by 50%; therefore, theophylline should be increased 50% in smokers. Severe liver disease, COPD, and congestive heart failure disease all reduce the metabolism of theophylline and therefore can theoretically cause toxic levels off the drug. Cimetidine, erythromycin, and oral contraceptives are all drugs that are metabolized by the p450 system in the liver and, therefore, have competitive action with theophylline metabolism. -
Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 pointsA 57 year old man had a mild MI. After improvement a drug is prescribed that, when administered to children, has been associated with Reye syndrome following an active varicella infection. The prescribed drug inhibits platelet aggregation by decreasing the production of which one of the following?
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Explanation:
Aspirin is an agent that has analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory effects. These effects are due to the irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase. Aspirin is indicated for mild to moderate pain, fever (except in children with chickenpox or flu symptoms because of the possible increased incidence of Reye syndrome), inflammatory conditions (e.g., rheumatic arthritis, rheumatic fever. osteoarthritis), as well as reduction in risk for myocardial infarction and transient ischemic attacks (TIAS) by irreversibly inhibiting platelet aggregation via decreased thromboxane A2 synthesis Reye syndrome, which exclusively affects children under 15 years of age, has been associated with aspirin usage following an active varicella infection as well as other viral illnesses. Reye syndrome is a multisystem disorder associated with severe vomiting, altered sensorium, elevated hepatic enzymes, hypoprothrombinemia, and hyperammonemia. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that interferes with the synthesis of the vitamin K dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X). Acetylation of platelet cyclooxygenase prevents the synthesis of thromboxane A2 a potent vasoconstrictor and inducer of platelet aggregation that is also involved in the platelet release reaction. Although aspirin inhibits the production of prostaglandins, a lower level of prostaglandins does not affect the clotting process. Aspirin causes uric acid levels to increase. -
Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 pointsWhat is the most likely early symptom of salicylate intoxication?
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Explanation:
At therapeutic doses, salicylate is metabolized by the liver and eliminated in 2-3 hours. Salicylate intoxication is manifested clinically by disturbances of several organ systems, including the CNS and the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, pulmonary, hepatic, renal, and metabolic systems. Salicylates directly or indirectly affect most organ systems in the body by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation, inhibiting Krebs cycle enzymes, and inhibiting amino acid synthesis. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is classified as the threshold symptom from mild to more severe intoxication. The onset of toxicity usually occurs when plasma concentrations exceed 300µg/mL. Acidosis does not occur until plasma levels exceed 460µg/mL. Gastric irritation and prolonged bleeding time can occur at therapeutic doses (<300 µg/mL). Hyperventilation generally begins when levels of salicylate exceed 350µg/mL. -
Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 pointsA man is diagnosed with lymphoma. He is given a chemotherapeutic agent that acts by first order kinetics. This medication administration would be expected to kill a
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Explanation:
First order kinetics, when applied to the concept of cytotoxicity, means that the drug will kill a constant proportion of tumor cells (rather than a constant number). The log kill hypothesis refines this by stating that the magnitude of killing by a cytotoxic agent is a logarithmic function. Therefore, a drug producing a 3 log kill will reduce 10^12 cells to 10^9, or will reduce 10^6 cells to 10^3 (three orders of magnitude in either case). This hypothesis accounts for the far better results observed with chemotherapy when the total tumor burden is low. The half-life of the drug does not determine the number of cells killed, assuming n adequate dose is given. Options D and E are both reflections of cell cycle specificity, the ability of a drug to specifically kill cells in particular phase of the cell cycle (e.g., S phase or G0 phase), and are unrelated to first order kinetics. -
Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 pointsA 29 year old woman with chronic renal failure requires kidney transplantation. Cyclosporine is given just before surgery to prevent rejection. After taking cyclosporine, she is most likely to experience which adverse effect?
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Explanation:
Cyclosporine induces immunosuppression by inhibiting interleukin-1 and interleukin-2 receptor production and inhibits macrophage/T-cell interaction and T-cell responsiveness through the regulation of gene transcription. Nephrotoxicity is the most common adverse effect of systemic cyclosporine therapy and has been documented in all types of patients receiving cyclosporine. Cyclosporine can cause nephrotoxicity in standard dosages, although the risk of developing cyclosporine induced nephrotoxicity increases with increasing doses as well as duration of cyclosporine therapy. Cyclosporine induced nephrotoxicity is most likely due to intense renal vasoconstriction, which leads to increases in serum creatinine, arterial blood pressure, and serum potassium. The mechanism for cyclosporine induced vasoconstriction is not well understood, but may be mediated by thromboxane, a reduction of vasodilatory prostaglandins, angiotensin II, endothelium platelet activating factor, or a reduction in endothelium-dependent relaxation factors. Although seizures can occur in patients taking cyclosporine, most patients who have seizures suffer a single seizure with no recurrence after dose reduction. Focal seizures and complex partial seizures are less common and usually occur in association with other focal deficits. Multiple factors (e.g., hypertension, high dose methylprednisolone, hypocholesterolemia, nephrotoxicity, and associated high serum cyclosporine levels) appear to be related to the neurologic manifestations of cyclosporine toxicity. The other side effects do not really occur with cyclosporine therapy. -
Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 pointsA 33 year old man has weakness and blurred vision that are typically worsened with effort and improve with rest. Examination shows ptosis and limb muscle weakness on repetitive testing. What is the mechanism of action of the drug that is commonly prescribed for the long term amelioration of these symptoms?
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Incorrect
Explanation:
The patient described suffers from myasthenia gravis (MG), a disorder in which autoantibodies to skeletal muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptors cause a reduction in the receptor number, leading to easy fatigability, weakness of extraocular and facial muscles, and difficulty eating. Symptomatic improvement in these patients can be obtained with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. Two of the most common drugs given are neostigmine and pyridostigmine, both of which act by carbamylating the acetylcholinesterase enzyme. This temporarily inhibits the enzyme, thus preventing the degradation of acetylcholine and allowing greater stimulation of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle.
Edrophonium (Tensilon) is a short-acting competitive inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase, used in the diagnosis of MG. The physician selects a weak muscle and then administers edrophonium to the patient. If the test is positive, the patient will exhibit increased strength in that muscle for about two minutes. Edrophonium is not useful for the treatment of MG because of its short duration of action. Pralidoxime (2-PAM) is an acetylcholinesterase reactivating agent that dephosphorylates acetylcholinesterase. It is used lf an individual is exposed to a phosphorylating acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (e.g., parathion or nerve gases). 2-PAM has a higher affinity for phosphorus than the enzyme, and thus can bind the acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and release the enzyme if “aging” of the phosphate bond has not occurred. This allows the active enzyme to be regenerated. A direct muscarinic agonist such as pilocarpine or bethanechol would cause enhanced parasympathetic effects such as increased activity in the bowel and bladder, pupillary miosis and accommodation for near vision. These agents are used clinically to activate bowel and bladder smooth muscle, and in the treatment of glaucoma. They have no place in the treatment of MG. A direct muscarinic antagonist such as atropine could be used as an antidote for an anticholinesterase inhibitor because it blocks the excessive parasympathetic side effects that would occur with elevated acetylcholine. -
Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 pointsA 16 year old girl has had mild persistent asthma for several years. Her symptoms have worsened recently. A drug that will produce a prolonged increase in cAMP levels for prophylaxis of her symptoms is
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Salmeterol is a beta-2 agonist, which acts by increasing levels of cAMP. This class of drugs can be divided into two classes of agents: short acting and long acting. The short-acting beta-2 agonists (albuterol terbutaline, metaproterenol, and pirbuterol) produce bronchodilation 15-30 minutes after administration; and their pharmacologic effect persists for 3-4 hours. The long acting beta-2 agonists (salmeterol and formoterol) produce bronchodilation in 30-60 minutes after administration; and their pharmacologic effect persists for approximately 12 hours. It is used as an inhalant, but it has a slower onset of action and longer duration than the typical short acting preparations. Consequently, it is useful for prophylaxis of asthma but is not used to treat an acute attack. Albuterol and metaproterenol are shorter-acting beta agonists. Their duration of action is about 6 hours. Ipratropium is a bronchodilator that acts by antagonizing M3 muscarinic receptors in the lung. M3 receptors are coupled to Gq, therefore, antagonism of this receptor would lead to decreases in inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). Nedocromil is not a bronchodilator, but can prevent bronchoconstriction by decreasing the release of mediators by mast cells. -
Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 pointsA 24 year old epileptic is maintained on primidone. Liver biopsy shows increased amounts of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Increase in the activity of which of the following is most closely related with this change?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Primidone has anticonvulsant activity as a result of its two metabolites, phenobarbital (a barbiturate) and phenylethylmalonamide (PEMA). Phenobarbital is a potent hepatic microsomal enzyme (cytochrome P450 mixed function oxidase system) inducer, which will increase and/or after the metabolism of other medications metabolized by this same hepatic enzyme system, Increased P450 synthesis requires enhanced transcription and translation, which is mediated by receptors on the hepatic smooth endoplasmic reticulum. The cytochrome P450 mixed function oxidase system is involved in the detoxification of some drugs and other exogenous compounds (barbiturates, carcinogenic hydrocarbons, steroids, carbon tetrachloride, alcohol, insecticides), and its growth can be stimulated by exposure (particularly chronic exposure) to these agents. As a consequence, cells adapted to one drug can more rapidly metabolize the other drugs and compounds handled by the P450 system. -
Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 pointsIn the ER a 4 year old boy is brought with a recent onset of a rash, urticarial, and a fever of 101°F. According to the mother her son has been complaining that his “bones hurt.” Examination reveals mild lymphadenopathy. His past medical history is unremarkable except that he just finished a 10 day course of Cefaclor suspension for treatment of an upper respiratory infection. What is the appropriate treatment for the boy?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Serum sickness is condition commonly caused by hypersensitivity to drugs. It is suggested that the drug acts is a hapter which binds to plasma proteins. This drug protein complex is recognized s being foreign to the body and induces the serum sickness. Common signs and symptoms of serum sickness include lever, cutaneous eruptions (morbilliform and/or urticarial), lymphadenopathy, and arthralgias. The reaction is generally delayed for 7 to 10 days after initial exposure because of the generation of specific IgG antibodies. With respect to cefaclor, the incidence of serum sickness is much higher in ln1nts and children than in adults. Due to the severity of the signs and symptoms in this patient, oral prednisone and diphenhydramine should be administered. The prednisone will treat the arthralgias and the skin rash and the diphenhydramine will alleviate the urticaria. The use of aspirin in a child with a fever is not indicated due to the risk of Reye syndrome. If the patient had not completed his antibiotic therapy, and/or if signs and symptoms of the infection were still present, switching the antibiotic to a non-beta lactam would be indicated. Prescribing erythromycin would not be indicated for patient with no signs or symptoms of infection. Intravenous penicillin would not be indicated since there is no infection in this patient, and IV penicillin is reserved for serious infections. In fact, penicillin administration is the most common cause of serum sickness. Topical betamethasone may help to treat the rash and urticaria; however, oral prednisone and diphenhydramine would produce more symptomatic relief. -
Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 pointsA patient is on naproxen for few months. He presents with multiple complaints about this medication. His physician decides to prescribe celecoxib instead. Which is the benefit of celecoxib over naproxen?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Celecoxib is an anti-inflammatory drug that exhibits anti- inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic effects. This agent is classified as a selective cyclooxygenase 2 (COX-2) enzyme inhibitor. COX-1 is involved in production of prostaglandins that are important in renal blood flow, blood clotting, and protection of the GI lining. COX- 2 appears to be involved in the production of prostaglandins involved in inflammation and pain. COX -2 inhibitors are indicated for the relief of pain and inflammation caused by osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis and for management of acute and chronic pain caused by inflammation in adults, as well for management of primary dysmenorrhea. Since COX-2 inhibitors do not inhibit COX- 1 there is much less irritation of the gastrointestinal tract than with nonspecific COX inhibitors. CNS related side effects are rare with both agents and have approximately the same incidence of occurrence in both agents. The anti inflammatory effects and antipyretic effects of both agents are approximately the same. Neither agent has any opioid analgesic properties.