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- 36
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- 45
- 46
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- 48
- 49
- 50
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- 54
- 55
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- 100
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointsAgglutination only with Anti-B typing serum indicates the blood is group
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following correctly identifies the antigens that would be found on an RBC in an individual has the H, Le and Se genes?
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 pointsIf a child is group B, and the mother is group A, which of the following may be excluded as possible groups of the father?
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 pointsIndividuals with the following blood group have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in hte serum
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 pointsBombay blood
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 pointsThe ABO blood group system was discovered by
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 pointsAgglutination with both anti-A and anti-B typing serums indicates the blood is group
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 pointsBlood containing neither antigens A nor B is which of the following groups?
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT a technique used to enhance ABO agglutination reactions?
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 pointsA group AB parent mated with a group O parent. Which of the following are possible in the offspring?
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 pointsBoth parents are group AB. Which of the following are possible in the offspring?
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 pointsMrs. Jones’ genotype is AA. Mr. Jones’ genotype is BO. By use of a punnett square, determine the possible ABO genotypes of their children.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 pointsA2 individuals
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 pointsThe frequency of anti-A1 is highest in type
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the responses best interprets/explains these blood typing results? Anti-A 4+ Anti-B 4+ Anti-A1 0 a1 cells 2+ b cells 0
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 pointsWhen two allelic genes are alike, the individual is said to be
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 pointsThe observable appearance of an object is known as the
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 pointsImmunohematology tests utilize
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 pointsHow many ABO phenotypes exist? How many ABO genortypes exist?
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 pointsThe cell type Rh2 corresponds to
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 pointsWhat is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CDe?
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 pointsWhat is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDE?
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 pointsWhat is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDe?
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 pointsWhat is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CDE?
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 pointsWhat is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cde?
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 pointsWhat is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CdE?
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 pointsBased on the following reactions, what is this person’s most probable genotype? Antisera Anti-D + Anti-C 0 Anti-E + Anti-c + Anti-e 0
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 pointsWhen an Rh gene on one chromosome affects the action of another Rh gene on the same chromosome, in terms of increased or decreased antigen production, it is referred to as
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 pointsWhich of the Rh system antigens in most antigenic, second only to D?
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 pointsAccording to the current theory of inheritance for the Rh system, how many genes are involved in the inheritance of Cc, D and Ee antigens?
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 pointsWhich Rh antigen is most antigenic?
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 pointsA person of the genotype rr could potentially produce antibodies of the following specificity:
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT true of the Rh control?
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 pointsIn an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first anitbody MOST LIKELY to develop is
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 pointsA patient’s serum reacts 2+ at the immediate spin phase with 3 of 10 panel cells. The reactions disappeared floowing incubation at 37 degrees C and were negative at AHG. The antibody most likely responsible is
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 pointsA high titer low avidity antibody (HTLA antibody is
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 pointsWhat is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-A?
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 pointsWhat is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Leb?
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 pointsWhat is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-K?
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 pointsWhat is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-S?
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 pointsWhat is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Fya?
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 pointsWhat is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-M?
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 pointsThe Ii antigen status of newborn cord blood erythrocytes is
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 pointsWhich of these is the most appropriate characteristic(s of anti-K (anti-K1?
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 pointsWhat is the typical class of Anti-Lea?
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 pointsWhat is the typical class of Anti-Leb?
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 pointsWhat is the typical class of Anti-M?
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 pointsWhat is the typical class of Anti-I?
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 pointsWhat is the typical class of Anti-K (anti-K1?
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 pointsWhat is the typical class of Anti-Kidd?
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is a characteristic of anti-I?
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following antibodies react stronger with enzyme treated cells?
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following antibodies are those whose reactions with corresponding antigens are destroyed with enzyme treated cells?
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following antigens exhibits dosage? 1. M, N, S, s 2. Kidd 3. Duffy 4. Rh (except D
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 pointsIf an antibody panel displays variable strength reactions, which of the following should be considered? 1. Multiple antibodies 2. Dosage effect 3. An antibody directed toward an antigen that has variable strength among donors 4. A drug-related antibody 5. A typical cold-reacting antibody
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 pointsAnti-human globulin is prepared by
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 pointsOne washes the cells for an anti-human globulin test to
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following might cause a false negative antiglobulin test? (IAT
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 pointsIn which antiglobulin procedure are check cells added to all negative reactions?
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 pointsIn which antiglobulin procedure is the first step addition of AHG to washed cells?
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 pointsIn which antiglobulin procedure does a washing step remove excess antibody not attached to cells?
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 pointsWhich antiglobulin procedure is a test to detect in vivo sensitization?
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 pointsWhich antiglobulin procedure is a test to detect antigen-antibody reactions in vitro?
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 pointsA positive DAT can be seen in all EXCEPT which of the following conditions?
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements about gel testing is FALSE?
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements about solid phase immunohematology testing is FALSE?
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 pointsThe major crossmatch consists of a mixture of
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 pointsThe primary purpose(s of the major crossmatch is(are 1. Avoid inadvertent transfusion of ABO-incompatible blood 2. Avoid inadvertent transfusion of Rh-positive blood to an Rh-negative person 3. Demonstrate previously undetected alloantibodies 4. Demonstrate previously undetected autoantibodies 5. Detect a drug-induced hemolytic anemia
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 pointsThe type and screen protocol consists of 1. ABO grouping 2. Rh typing 3. alloantibody screening 4. HIV screening 5. HbsAg screening
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 pointsIf a major crossmatch is incompatible at room temperature, but the alloantibody screen and autocontrol are both negative, the problem can be the result of
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT a potential cause of a false positive direct antiglobulin test?
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT a potential cause of a false negative direct antiglobulin test?
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 pointsA positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT as a result of drugs can be caused by a(n ______ mechanism.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 pointsPre-transfusion testing on a patient reveals a group A positive with a negative antibody screen. Previous blood bank records indicate an anti-E was detected eight years ago. Units suitable for transfusion are
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 pointsMixed-field agglutination at the antihuman globulin phase of a crossmatch may be attributed to
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 pointsWhat typing discrepancy problem could occure in a patient with Hypogammaglobulinemia?
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 pointsWhat typing discrepancy problem could occur in a patient with rouleaux?
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 pointsWhat typing discrepancy problem could occur in a patient with subgroups of A?
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 pointsA 14-year old male trauma victim is in need of three units of RBCs. The following results were obtained during pre-transfusion testing: Screening Cell I: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Screening Cell II: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Autocontrol: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Crossmatch: Donor 1: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Donor 2: IS 0 37 0 IAT + Donor 3: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 What is the FIRST step in resolving this problem?
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 pointsA 37 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE is admitted with anemia. Blood samples are received with a crossmatch request for 4 units of RBCs. The patient is group B, Rh negative. The following resultus were obtained in pre-transfusion testing: SCI: IS 0 37 0 IAT 3+ SCII: IS 0 37 0 IAT 3+ Autocontrol: IS 0 37 0 IAT 3+ The most probable cause of these results is:
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 pointsA 42 year old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and her physician requests that 4 units of RBCs be crossmatched. The lab obtained the following results: SCI: IS 4+ 37 1+ IAT +/- SCII: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Autocontrol: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Crossmatch: Donor 1: IS 4+ 37 1+ IAT +/- Donor 2, 3, 4: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1?
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 pointsIn hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother’s ____ is directed against fetal _______.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 pointsThe antibody class implicated in hemolytic disease of the newborn is
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 pointsThe most severe form of hemolytic disease of the newborn is associated with
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 pointsProduction of maternal antibodies depends on all of the following factors EXCEPT
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 pointsThe purpose of the rosette test and the Kleihauer-Betke test is to detect
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 pointsThe most frequent cause of ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn is
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 pointsRh immune globulin provides _________ protection against fetal D antigen
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following does NOT partially meet the criteria for postpartum administrationi of Rh immune globulin?
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 pointsAutoimmune hemolytic anemia can be due to
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 pointsAn intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction is most commonly due to
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 pointsThe most frequent cause of an acute extravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction is
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 pointsFever and chills are the most common symptoms of which type of transfusion reaction?
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 pointsThe most common type of transfusion reaction is
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 pointsWhen investigating a hemolytic transfusion reaction, which of the following tests should be performed on the pre and post samples?
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 pointsCharacteristics of a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction include
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 pointsPulmonary edema, hypotension, chills and fever are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 pointsHives and itching are symptoms or which of the following transfusion reactions?
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 pointsA1 lectin prepared from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus will react with
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