MLT COMPREHENSIVE EXAM KIT25

Question 1 of 100

1. Question

1 points

Agglutination only with Anti-B typing serum indicates the blood is group

O
AB
B
A

Question 2 of 100

2. Question

1 points

Which of the following correctly identifies the antigens that would be found on an RBC in an individual has the H, Le and Se genes?

H, Lea
H, Leb
Lea only
Leb only

Question 3 of 100

3. Question

1 points

If a child is group B, and the mother is group A, which of the following may be excluded as possible groups of the father?

O
B
AB
All of the above
None of the above

Question 4 of 100

4. Question

1 points

Individuals with the following blood group have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in hte serum

Group A
Group B
Group O
Group AB

Question 5 of 100

5. Question

1 points

Bombay blood

Has anti-A, anti-B and anti-H
Lacks antigens A, B and H
Is grouped as O in routine typing
All
None

Question 6 of 100

6. Question

1 points

The ABO blood group system was discovered by

Landsteiner
Levine
Weiner
Coombs

Question 7 of 100

7. Question

1 points

Agglutination with both anti-A and anti-B typing serums indicates the blood is group

AB
A
B
O

Question 8 of 100

8. Question

1 points

Blood containing neither antigens A nor B is which of the following groups?

AB
O
B
A

Question 9 of 100

9. Question

1 points

Which of the following is NOT a technique used to enhance ABO agglutination reactions?

Refrigerate the reactions
Increase incubation time
Warm the reactions

Question 10 of 100

10. Question

1 points

A group AB parent mated with a group O parent. Which of the following are possible in the offspring?

Group A
Group B
Group A and B
Group O

Question 11 of 100

11. Question

1 points

Both parents are group AB. Which of the following are possible in the offspring?

Group AB
Group A
Group B
All

Question 12 of 100

12. Question

1 points

Mrs. Jones’ genotype is AA. Mr. Jones’ genotype is BO. By use of a punnett square, determine the possible ABO genotypes of their children.

AB or AO
AB or AA
AB or OO
AO or BB

Question 13 of 100

13. Question

1 points

A2 individuals

Have fewer A antigen sites than A1 individuals
Are non reactive with A1 lectin
May produce anti-A1
All

Question 14 of 100

14. Question

1 points

The frequency of anti-A1 is highest in type

A1
A2
B
A1B
A2B

Question 15 of 100

15. Question

1 points

Which of the responses best interprets/explains these blood typing results? Anti-A 4+ Anti-B 4+ Anti-A1 0 a1 cells 2+ b cells 0

Type A1
Acuired B Phenotype
A2B with anti-A1
Weak subgroup of B

Question 16 of 100

16. Question

1 points

When two allelic genes are alike, the individual is said to be

Heterozygous
Dominant
Homozygous
Co-dominant

Question 17 of 100

17. Question

1 points

The observable appearance of an object is known as the

Allele
Phenotype
Recessive
Genotype

Question 18 of 100

18. Question

1 points

Immunohematology tests utilize

Precipitation
Direct agglutination
Immunodiffusion
Passive agglutination

Question 19 of 100

19. Question

1 points

How many ABO phenotypes exist? How many ABO genortypes exist?

6,4
4,6
6,6
4,4

Question 20 of 100

20. Question

1 points

The cell type Rh2 corresponds to

CDE
CDE
CdE
Cde

Question 21 of 100

21. Question

1 points

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CDe?

R2
R0
R
Rz

Question 22 of 100

22. Question

1 points

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDE?

R2

Question 23 of 100

23. Question

1 points

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDe?

R2
R0
Rz
R

Question 24 of 100

24. Question

1 points

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CDE?

R2
Rz
R1

Question 25 of 100

25. Question

1 points

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cde?

R2
R

Question 26 of 100

26. Question

1 points

What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CdE?

R2
Ry
R
R0

Question 27 of 100

27. Question

1 points

Based on the following reactions, what is this person’s most probable genotype? Antisera Anti-D + Anti-C 0 Anti-E + Anti-c + Anti-e 0

R1r
R2R2
R2Rz
R0r
R1R1

Question 28 of 100

28. Question

1 points

When an Rh gene on one chromosome affects the action of another Rh gene on the same chromosome, in terms of increased or decreased antigen production, it is referred to as

Cis effect
Trans effect
Either a or b

Question 29 of 100

29. Question

1 points

Which of the Rh system antigens in most antigenic, second only to D?

C
C
E
E

Question 30 of 100

30. Question

1 points

According to the current theory of inheritance for the Rh system, how many genes are involved in the inheritance of Cc, D and Ee antigens?

1
2
3
4
6

Question 31 of 100

31. Question

1 points

Which Rh antigen is most antigenic?

D
C
C
E
E

Question 32 of 100

32. Question

1 points

A person of the genotype rr could potentially produce antibodies of the following specificity:

Anti-D
Anti-C
Anti-E
Anti-c
All of the above except d

Question 33 of 100

33. Question

1 points

Which of the following is NOT true of the Rh control?

Must be positive for Rh grouping to be valid
Must be negative for Rh grouping to be valid
Ensures agglutination is due to the presence of D antigen and not due to increased proteins in the reagent or in vivo sensitization

Question 34 of 100

34. Question

1 points

In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first anitbody MOST LIKELY to develop is

Anti-c
Anti-d
Anti-e
Anti-E

Question 35 of 100

35. Question

1 points

A patient’s serum reacts 2+ at the immediate spin phase with 3 of 10 panel cells. The reactions disappeared floowing incubation at 37 degrees C and were negative at AHG. The antibody most likely responsible is

Anti P1
Anti-Lea
Anti-C
Anti-Fya

Question 36 of 100

36. Question

1 points

A high titer low avidity antibody (HTLA antibody is

A typical cold agglutinin
An antibody that reacts weakly at lower rather than optimum temperatures
Anti-D found in Rh immune globulin recipients
Antibodies with low binding capacity and high titration values

Question 37 of 100

37. Question

1 points

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-A?

Room temperature or colder
37 degrees C or antiglobulin testing

Question 38 of 100

38. Question

1 points

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Leb?

Room temp or colder
37 degrees C or antiglobulin testing

Question 39 of 100

39. Question

1 points

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-K?

Room temp or colder
37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

Question 40 of 100

40. Question

1 points

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-S?

Room temp or colder
37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

Question 41 of 100

41. Question

1 points

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Fya?

Room temp or colder
37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

Question 42 of 100

42. Question

1 points

What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-M?

Room temp or colder
37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

Question 43 of 100

43. Question

1 points

The Ii antigen status of newborn cord blood erythrocytes is

I positive
I negative
I positive
I negative
Both b and c

Question 44 of 100

44. Question

1 points

Which of these is the most appropriate characteristic(s of anti-K (anti-K1?

Usually IgM; rarely IgG
Infrequently encountered in routine blood banking
Stimulated by k antigen
Second in immunogenicity to D antigen
Usually not a cause of hemolytic transfusion reaction

Question 45 of 100

45. Question

1 points

What is the typical class of Anti-Lea?

IgM
IgG

Question 46 of 100

46. Question

1 points

What is the typical class of Anti-Leb?

IgM
IgG

Question 47 of 100

47. Question

1 points

What is the typical class of Anti-M?

IgM
IgG

Question 48 of 100

48. Question

1 points

What is the typical class of Anti-I?

IgM
IgG

Question 49 of 100

49. Question

1 points

What is the typical class of Anti-K (anti-K1?

IgM
IgG

Question 50 of 100

50. Question

1 points

What is the typical class of Anti-Kidd?

IgM
IgG

Question 51 of 100

51. Question

1 points

Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-I?

Often associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn
Frequently a cold agglutinin
Reacts best at 37 degree C
Is usually IgG

Question 52 of 100

52. Question

1 points

Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?

Is often associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Can often be found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis
Can often be detected at lower temps in the serum of normal individuals
Is found only in the serum of group O individuals

Question 53 of 100

53. Question

1 points

Which of the following antibodies react stronger with enzyme treated cells?

Anti-M
Antijka

Question 54 of 100

54. Question

1 points

Which of the following antibodies are those whose reactions with corresponding antigens are destroyed with enzyme treated cells?

Anti-M
Anti-D
Anti-Jka
All
None

Question 55 of 100

55. Question

1 points

Which of the following antigens exhibits dosage? 1. M, N, S, s 2. Kidd 3. Duffy 4. Rh (except D

1,2, and 3
1 & 3
2 & 4
All

Question 56 of 100

56. Question

1 points

If an antibody panel displays variable strength reactions, which of the following should be considered? 1. Multiple antibodies 2. Dosage effect 3. An antibody directed toward an antigen that has variable strength among donors 4. A drug-related antibody 5. A typical cold-reacting antibody

1 only
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
5

Question 57 of 100

57. Question

1 points

Anti-human globulin is prepared by

Injecting humans with goat or rabbit serum
Injecting goats or rabbits with human globulins
Injecting humans with blood group substances
Drawing blood from a sensitized human

Question 58 of 100

58. Question

1 points

One washes the cells for an anti-human globulin test to

Remove antibody from the cells
Wash away traces of free hemoglobin
Wash away traces of unbound human serum globulin
A and b
B and c

Question 59 of 100

59. Question

1 points

Which of the following might cause a false negative antiglobulin test? (IAT

Over-reading
IgG coated screening cells
Over centrifugation
Too heavy a cell suspension

Question 60 of 100

60. Question

1 points

In which antiglobulin procedure are check cells added to all negative reactions?

DAT
IAT
All
None

Question 61 of 100

61. Question

1 points

In which antiglobulin procedure is the first step addition of AHG to washed cells?

DAT
IAT
All
None

Question 62 of 100

62. Question

1 points

In which antiglobulin procedure does a washing step remove excess antibody not attached to cells?

DAT
IAT
All
None

Question 63 of 100

63. Question

1 points

Which antiglobulin procedure is a test to detect in vivo sensitization?

DAT
IAT
All
None

Question 64 of 100

64. Question

1 points

Which antiglobulin procedure is a test to detect antigen-antibody reactions in vitro?

DAT
IAT
All
None

Question 65 of 100

65. Question

1 points

A positive DAT can be seen in all EXCEPT which of the following conditions?

AIHA
Drug induced hemolytic anemia
Transfusion reaction (post-transfusion sample)
HDN (cord blood)
Presence of anti-c in a R1R1 individual

Question 66 of 100

66. Question

1 points

Which of the following statements about gel testing is FALSE?

In a negative reaction, cells will settle to the bottom of the gel chamber.
In a positive reaction, cells remain in the top or partially travel through the gel chamber.
Gel cards are all identical and can be used interchangeably for any type of immunohematology testing
Gel procedures allow reaction strengths to be graded

Question 67 of 100

67. Question

1 points

Which of the following statements about solid phase immunohematology testing is FALSE?

Antigen or antibody is fixed to a microwell plate.
Useful for high volume testing
Positive reactions have RBC pellet at the bottom of the plate
Used to detect antibody in serum or antigens on red cells

Question 68 of 100

68. Question

1 points

The major crossmatch consists of a mixture of

Donor serum and patient erythrocytes
Donor serum and donor erythrocytes
Patient serum and donor erythrocytes
Patient serum and patient erythrocytes
Either a or d

Question 69 of 100

69. Question

1 points

The primary purpose(s of the major crossmatch is(are 1. Avoid inadvertent transfusion of ABO-incompatible blood 2. Avoid inadvertent transfusion of Rh-positive blood to an Rh-negative person 3. Demonstrate previously undetected alloantibodies 4. Demonstrate previously undetected autoantibodies 5. Detect a drug-induced hemolytic anemia

1 only
1 and 2
1 and 3
4 only
4 and 5

Question 70 of 100

70. Question

1 points

The type and screen protocol consists of 1. ABO grouping 2. Rh typing 3. alloantibody screening 4. HIV screening 5. HbsAg screening

1
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
1, 4, and 5
All

Question 71 of 100

71. Question

1 points

If a major crossmatch is incompatible at room temperature, but the alloantibody screen and autocontrol are both negative, the problem can be the result of

Anti-A1 in an A1 or A2B patient
A donor with a positive direct antiglobulin test
An antibody in the patient's serum reacting with a low incidence antigen on the donor's erythrocytes
An antibody in the donor's serum
A and c

Question 72 of 100

72. Question

1 points

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a false positive direct antiglobulin test?

Use of EDTA anticoagulated blood
Use of refrigerated clotted whole blood
Bacterial contamination
Dirty glassware
Overcentrifugation of erythrocytes

Question 73 of 100

73. Question

1 points

Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a false negative direct antiglobulin test?

Incorrect red cell suspension
Bacterial contamination
Delays in the testing process
Omitting AHG from the test

Question 74 of 100

74. Question

1 points

A positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT as a result of drugs can be caused by a(n ______ mechanism.

Drug adsorption
Immune complex absorption
Membrane modification
Autoantibody formation
All

Question 75 of 100

75. Question

1 points

Pre-transfusion testing on a patient reveals a group A positive with a negative antibody screen. Previous blood bank records indicate an anti-E was detected eight years ago. Units suitable for transfusion are

A positive, compatible with the patient serum
A negative, negative for E antigen
O positive, compatible with the patient serum
A positive, negative for E antigen.

Question 76 of 100

76. Question

1 points

Mixed-field agglutination at the antihuman globulin phase of a crossmatch may be attributed to

Recently transfused cells
Intrauterine exchange transfusion
An antibody such as Sda
Fetomaternal hemorrhage

Question 77 of 100

77. Question

1 points

What typing discrepancy problem could occure in a patient with Hypogammaglobulinemia?

Missing or weak antigen
Unexpected antigen
Missing or weak antibody
Pseudoagglutination

Question 78 of 100

78. Question

1 points

What typing discrepancy problem could occur in a patient with rouleaux?

Missing or weak antigen
Unexpected antigen
Missing or weak antibody
Pseudoagglutination

Question 79 of 100

79. Question

1 points

What typing discrepancy problem could occur in a patient with subgroups of A?

Missing or weak antigen
Unexpected antigen
Missing or weak antibody
Pseudoagglutination

Question 80 of 100

80. Question

1 points

A 14-year old male trauma victim is in need of three units of RBCs. The following results were obtained during pre-transfusion testing: Screening Cell I: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Screening Cell II: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Autocontrol: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Crossmatch: Donor 1: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Donor 2: IS 0 37 0 IAT + Donor 3: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 What is the FIRST step in resolving this problem?

Perform an enzyme panel on the patient's serum
Choose more donors to crossmatch
Confirm ABO and Rh on donors
Repeat the crossmatch
Perform at DAT on donor 2

Question 81 of 100

81. Question

1 points

A 37 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE is admitted with anemia. Blood samples are received with a crossmatch request for 4 units of RBCs. The patient is group B, Rh negative. The following resultus were obtained in pre-transfusion testing: SCI: IS 0 37 0 IAT 3+ SCII: IS 0 37 0 IAT 3+ Autocontrol: IS 0 37 0 IAT 3+ The most probable cause of these results is:

Rouleaux
ABO incompatibility
A warm autoantibody
A cold autoantibody
Multiple alloantibodies

Question 82 of 100

82. Question

1 points

A 42 year old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and her physician requests that 4 units of RBCs be crossmatched. The lab obtained the following results: SCI: IS 4+ 37 1+ IAT +/- SCII: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Autocontrol: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 Crossmatch: Donor 1: IS 4+ 37 1+ IAT +/- Donor 2, 3, 4: IS 0 37 0 IAT 0 What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1?

A single alloantibody
Multiple alloantibodies
Rh incompatibility
Donor 1 has a positive DAT

Question 83 of 100

83. Question

1 points

In hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother’s ____ is directed against fetal _______.

Antigen; antibody
Antibody; antigen
Antigen; antigen
Antibody; antibody
Bilirubin; lipid-rich nervous tissue

Question 84 of 100

84. Question

1 points

The antibody class implicated in hemolytic disease of the newborn is

IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD

Question 85 of 100

85. Question

1 points

The most severe form of hemolytic disease of the newborn is associated with

Anti-A
Anti-B
Anti-D
Anti-K
Anti-c

Question 86 of 100

86. Question

1 points

Production of maternal antibodies depends on all of the following factors EXCEPT

Lack of a specific antigen in the mother
Presence of a specific antigen in the fetus
Presence of a specific antibody in the fetus
Immunogenic strength of an antigen
The quantity of transplacental hemorrhage

Question 87 of 100

87. Question

1 points

The purpose of the rosette test and the Kleihauer-Betke test is to detect

Maternal D antigen
Maternal D antibody
Fetal D antigen
Fetal D antibody
Fetal-maternal hemorrhage

Question 88 of 100

88. Question

1 points

The most frequent cause of ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn is

Mother group O, baby group A
Mother group O, baby group B
Mother group A, baby group O
Mother group A, baby group B
Mother group B, baby group A

Question 89 of 100

89. Question

1 points

Rh immune globulin provides _________ protection against fetal D antigen

Active
Passive
Antigen-stimulated
Antibody-stimulated
No

Question 90 of 100

90. Question

1 points

Which of the following does NOT partially meet the criteria for postpartum administrationi of Rh immune globulin?

Mother D negative, infant D positive, cord cell elution revealed anti-K (anti-K1)
Mother D negative, alloantibody screen positive (anti-c), infant D positive
Mother D negative, alloantibody screen negative, infant D negative
Mother D negative, infant's type unknown, alloantibody screen positive (anti-K/anti-K1)
None of the above

Question 91 of 100

91. Question

1 points

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia can be due to

Warm-reactive autoantibodies
Cold-reactive autoantibodies
Drugs
Warm-reactive alloantibodies
A, b and c

Question 92 of 100

92. Question

1 points

An intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction is most commonly due to

Failure to detect anitbodies in pretransfusion testing
Clerical errors
Reactions to leukocytes
Use of old units of blood

Question 93 of 100

93. Question

1 points

The most frequent cause of an acute extravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction is

Anti-I
Anti-A, Anti-B
Anti-Le
Anti-K

Question 94 of 100

94. Question

1 points

Fever and chills are the most common symptoms of which type of transfusion reaction?

Hemolytic
Circulatory overload
Allergic
Febrile non-hemolytic

Question 95 of 100

95. Question

1 points

The most common type of transfusion reaction is

Hemolytic
Febrile, non-hemolytic
Anaphylactic
Allergic (urticarial)

Question 96 of 100

96. Question

1 points

When investigating a hemolytic transfusion reaction, which of the following tests should be performed on the pre and post samples?

DAT
Repeat crossmatch
Panel
Elution

Question 97 of 100

97. Question

1 points

Characteristics of a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction include

Acute respiratory insufficiency
Jaundice
Renal shutdown
None

Question 98 of 100

98. Question

1 points

Pulmonary edema, hypotension, chills and fever are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

Febrile
Allergice
TRALI
Hemolytic

Question 99 of 100

99. Question

1 points

Hives and itching are symptoms or which of the following transfusion reactions?

Febrile non-hemolytic
Allergic
Circulatory overload
Anaphylactic

Question 100 of 100

100. Question

1 points

A1 lectin prepared from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus will react with

Oh cells
A1 cells
A1 and A2 cells if not diluted
Adult O cells

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