During an intravenous urography, it is helpful to:

1. use a AP Trendelenburg 15 degrees

2. apply compression on the proximal ureters

3. apply compression on the distal ureters

The diagnostic examination known as myelography is used to demonstrate:
1. internal disk lesions
2. anterior protrusion of herniated intervertebral disc
3. posterior protrusion of herniated intervertebral disc

Regarding lower extremity venography, which of the following statement(s) is (are) true?
1. AP projections only
2. the patient is often examed in the semi-erect position
3. tourniquets are used to force contrast medium into deep veins

During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate:
1. barium-filled fundus
2. double-contrast of distal stomach portions
3. barium-filled duodenum and pylorus

When imaging the skull with the OML perpendicular to the image receptor and the CR directed 25-degrees cephalad:
1. the occipital bone is well demonstrated
2. the dorsum sella is seen within the foramen magnum
3. the petrous pyramids fill the orbits

A profile view of the glenoid fossa can be obtained with the CR directed perpendicular to the glenoid fossa and the patient rotated:

The following bones participate in the formation of the knee joint:
1. femur
2. tibia
3. patella

During GI radiography, the position of the stomach often varies depending on:
1. respiratory phase
2. body habitus
3. patient position

Glenohumeral joint dislocation can be evaluated with which of the following?
1. inferosuperior axial
2. transthoracic lateral
3. scapular Y projection

A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structure(s)?
1. pylorus
2. sigmoid
3. duodenum

The image intensifier’s input phosphor is generally composed of:

In which aspect of the orbital wall a “blowout fracture” usually occurs?

In the parieto-orbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal, the median sagittal plane and central ray form what angle?

Image identification markers should include:
1. patient’s name and/or ID number
2. date
3. right or left marker

The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and:

All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single-contrast and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel, except:

The following statement(s) is (are) accurate with respect to the differences between the male and female bony pelvis:
1. the female pelvic outlet is wider
2. the pubic angle is 90 degrees or fewer in the male
3. the male pelvis is more shallow

In the lateral projection of the foot, the:
1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the image receptor
2. metatarsals are superimposed
3. talofibular joint should be visualized

What projection of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, plantar surface vertical and perpendicular to the image receptor, and central ray directed 40-degree caudad?

With the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method), and the central ray directed through the patient’s open mouth, which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated through the open mouth?

In which body position would a patient suffering from orthopnea experience the least discomfort?

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate:
1. pneumothorax
2. foreign body
3. atelectasis

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the:
1. brachiocephalic artery
2. common carotid arteries
3. vertebral arteries

Which of the following best demonstrates the navicular, the first and second cuneiforms, and their articulations with the first and second metatarsals?

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
1. intervertebral joints
2. apophyseal joints
3. intervertebral foramina

Which of the following conditions is characterized by widening of the intercostal spaces?

During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average size and shape will usually demonstrate:
1. barium-filled fundus
2. double contrast of distal stomach portions
3. barium-filled duodenum and pylorus

During a GI examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate:
1. anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach
2. barium-filled fundus
3. double-contrast body and antral portions

What position is frequently used to project the GB away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?

To better demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during intravenous urography, it is helpful to:
1. use a 15◦ AP Trendelenburg position
2. apply compression to the proximal ureters
3. apply compression to the distal ureters

Foreshortening may be caused by:
1. the radiographer object being placed at an angle of the imaging receptor
2. insufficient distance between the focus and image receptor
3. very little distance between the object and the image receptor

32) An x-ray radiograph demonstrating poor contrast resolution can be attributed to infusing:
1. Beam Restriction
2. Kilovoltage
3. mAs

The use of optimum kV for small, medium, and large body parts is the premise of:

Image fading in CR can occur if:
1. unexposed PSPs are unused for extended periods
2. exposed PSPs are not processed soon after exposure
3. exposed PSPs are exposed to high temperatures

The amount of replenishment solution added to the automatic processor is determine by:
1. size of the film
2. position of film on tray feeding into processor
3. length of time required for film to enter processor

Accurate operation of the AEC device is dependent on:
1. thickness and density of the object
2. positioning of the object with respect to the ionization chamber
3. beam restriction

Typical examples of digital imaging include:
1. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
2. computed tomography (CT)
3. pluridirectional tomography

A CR histogram is a graphic representation of:

Of the following groups of technical factors, which will produce the greatest radiographic density?

The energy of ionizing electromagnetic radiations is measured in:

A radiograph made with a parallel grid demonstrates decreased density on its lateral edges. This is most likely caused by:

An exposure was made at 38-inches SID using 300 mA, 0.03-second exposure, and 80 kV with a 400 film–screen combination and an 8:1 grid. It is desired to repeat the radiograph and, to improve recorded detail, use 42-inches SID and 200 film–screen combination. With all other factors remaining constant, what exposure time will be required to maintain the original radiographic density?

A wire mesh is used to test:

Which of the following is (are) considered a geometric factor(s) controlling recorded detail?
1. OID
2. SID
3. screen speed

Which of the following has an effect on distortion?
1. source–image distance
2. angulation of the x-ray tube
3. angulation of the part

The term used to describe image density in digital imaging is:

An exposure was made at 40 inches SID using 300 mA, 0.12-second exposure and 70 kV with a 200 film/screen combination and an 8:1 grid. It is desired to repeat the image and, in order to produce improved detail, use 48-inch SID and 100 film/screen combination. Using 0.25-second exposure, and with all other factors remaining constant, what mA will be required to maintain the original radiographic density?

Compared to a low-ratio grid, a higher-ratio grid could have:
1. taller lead strips
2. more distance between the lead strips
3. thicker lead strips

In comparison to 90 kV, 60 kV will:
1. permit greater exposure latitude
2. produce shorter scale contrast
3. produce less Compton scatter

Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the longest scale of contrast?

What portion of an IP records the CR image?

Which of the following can be used to determine the sensitivity of a particular film emulsion?

Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase in exposure factors?

The x-ray detection system that does not have a scintillation component is:

Grid ratio is defined as the relationship between the height of the lead strip and the:

If the quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect:

Which of the following account(s) for x-ray beam heterogeneity?
1. electron moving to fill all different shell vacancies
2. incident electrons interacting with several layers of tungsten target atoms
3. its nuclear origin

Patient dose can be decreased by using:
1. high ratio grids
2. high-speed screen and film combination
3. air-gap technique

Each time an x-ray scatters, it’s intensity at 1 meter from scattering object is what fraction of its original intensity?

If a person received 45 mR while standing at 4 feet from a source of radiation for the 2 minutes, which options listed below will most effectively reduce his or her radiation exposure?

How much protection is provided from 100 KV x-ray beam when using a .50-mm lead equivalent apron?

If your patient is unable to stay in the necessary position and mechanical restraining devices cannot be used, who of the following is best suited to hold the patient?

Which of the following is a measure of does to biological tissue?

The term effective dose refers to:

Examples of primary radiation barriers include:
1. x-ray room walls
2. control booth
3. lead aprons

Characteristics of nonstochastic effects of radiation include:
1. they have predictability
2. they have a threshold
3. severity is directly related to dose

Classify the following tissues in order of decreasing radiosensitivity:
1. liver cells
2. intestinal crypt cells
3. muscle cells

Major effect(s) of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) irradiation include:
1. malignant disease
2. chromosome aberration
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3. cell death

Hormonal factors that increase the risk of a woman developing breast cancer include:
1. family history
2. early menses
3. nulliparity

All of the following statements regarding breast cancer management are true, except:

Proper care of leaded apparel includes:
1. periodic check for cracks
2. careful folding following each use
3. routine laundering with soap and water

Which of the following types of adult tissues is (are) relatively insensitive to radiation exposure?
1. muscle tissue
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2. nerve tissue
3. epithelial tissue

Linear energy transfer (LET) is:
1. a method of expressing radiation quality
2. a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue
3. absorption of poly-energetic radiation

The effects of radiation to biologic material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect:

Which of the following account(s) for x-ray beam heterogeneity?
1. incident electrons interacting with several layers of tungsten target atoms
2. electrons moving to fill different shell vacancies

When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine range?

Which ethical principle below is most closely related to truth telling?

Symptoms of shock include:
1. pallor and weakness
2. increased pulse rate
3. fever

An autoclave is used for:

Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include:
1. tuberculosis
2. mumps
3. rubella

Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called:
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1. antiseptics
2. germicides
3. disinfectants

Characteristics of anemia include:
1. decreased number of circulating red blood cells
2. decreased hemoglobin
3. hematuria

Chemical substances that inhibit growth of pathogenic microorganisms without necessarily killing them are called:
1. antiseptics
2. germicides
3. disinfectants

The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified as:

What type of precaution prevents the spread of infectious agents in aerosol form?

The most effective method of sterilization is:

The legislation that guarantees confidentiality of all patient information is:

Patients’ rights include the following:
1. the right to refuse treatment
2. the right to confidentiality
3. the right to possess one’s medical records

A three-phase timer can be tested for accuracy using a synchronous spinning top. The resulting image looks like a:

If the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer is supplied by 220 V and has 150 turns, and the secondary coil has 75,000 turns; what is the voltage induced in the secondary coil?

Which of the following circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of self-induction?
1. autotransformer
2. choke coil
3. high-voltage transformer

Which of the following statement(s) regarding transformer laws is (are) correct?
1. the voltage and current values are increased with a step-up transformer
2. the voltage is directly related to the number of turns in the two coils
3. the product of voltage and current in the two circuits must be equal

Which of the following is used to evaluate focal spot size?

Periodic equipment calibration includes testing of the:
1. focal spot
2. mA
3. kV

A quality assurance program includes checks on which of the following radiographic equipment conditions?
1. reproducibility
2. linearity
3. positive beam limitation

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?

Developer solution is prevented from entering the fixer tank in automatic processing by the:

The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used in an automatic processor is located at the:

Radiographs from a particular three-phase, full-wave rectified x-ray unit were underexposed, using known correct exposures. A synchronous spinning-top test was performed using 100 mA, 1/20 second, and 70 kV, and a 12-degree arc is observed on the test film. Which of the following is most likely the problem?

The spinning-top test can be used to evaluate:
1. timer accuracy
2. rectifier failure
3. effect of kV on contrast