RADIOGRAPHER ONLINE EXAM PRACTICE KIT 3
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement(s) regarding myelography is correct?
1. spinal puncture can be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position
2. contrast medium distribution is regulated through table angulation
3. the patient’s head must be in acute flexion during Trendelenburg positionsCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Myelography the radiologic examination of structures within the spinal canal. Opaque contrast medium is usually used. Following injection, the contrast medium is distributed
to the vertebral region of interest by gravity; the x-ray table is angled Trendelenburg or visualization of the cervical region and in the Fowler’s position for visualization of the thoracic and lumbar regions. While the table is Trendelenburg, care must be taken that the patient’s head be kept in acute extension to compress the cisterna magna and keep contrast medium from traveling into the ventricles of the brain. -
Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 pointsThe contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart is called:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
As the heart contracts and relaxes while functioning to pump blood from the heart, those arteries that are large and those in closest proximity to the heart will feel the effect of the heart’s forceful contractions in their walls. The arterial walls pulsate in unison with the heart’s contractions. This movement may be detected with the fingers in various parts of the body andis referred to as the pulse.
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 pointsThe method by which contrast-filled vascular images are removed from superimposition upon bone is called:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Superimposition of bonydetailsfrequently makes angiographic demonstration of blood
vessels less than optimal. The method used to remove these superimposed bony details is called subtraction. Digital subtraction can accomplish this through the use of a computer, but photographic subtraction may also be performed using images from an angiographic series. Registration is the process of matching one series image exactly over another. A reversal image,or positive mask, is a reverse of the black and white radiographic tones. -
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 pointsIndicate the correct sequence of oxygenated blood as it returns from the lungs to the heart:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Deoxygenated blood is returned by way of the inferior and superior vena cava to the right side of the heart. The blood is emptied into the right atrium, passes through the tricuspid valve, and enters the right ventricle. It is forced through the pulmonary semilunar valve into the pulmonary artery (by contraction of the right ventricle) and passes to the lungs for reoxygenation. From the lungs it is collected by the pulmonary veins, which carry the oxygenated blood to the left atrium, where it travels through the mitral valve into the left ventricle. Upon contraction of the left ventricle, blood passes through the aortic valve into the aorta and to all parts of the body.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 pointsIn myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Generally, contrast medium is injected into the subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae. Because the spinal cord ends at the level of the first or second lumbar vertebrae, this is considered to be a relatively safe injection site. The cisterna magna can be used, but the risk of contrast entering and causing side effects increases.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 pointsLower extremity venography requires an injection of iodinated contrast medium into the:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Lower extremity venography requires an injection of contrast medium into the superficial veins of the foot. The skin on top of the patient’s foot is very sensitive and every precaution should be taken to minimize the pain involved. Explain the procedure fully and soak the foot in warm water to make the veins more accessible for injection.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 pointsMyelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate:
1. posterior protrusion of herniated intervertebral disc
2. anterior protrusion of herniated intervertebral disc
3. internal disc lesionsCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
An intervertebral disc can rupture due to trauma or degeneration. The nucleus pulposus protrudes posteriorly through a tear in the annulus fibrosus and impinges on nerve roots and can be demonstrated by placing positive or negative contrast media into the subarachnoid space. Internal disc lesions can be demonstrated only by injecting contrast into the individual
discs (this procedure is termed discography). Anterior protrusion of a herniated intervertebral disc does not impinge on the spinal cord and is not demonstrated in myelography. -
Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 pointsThe four major arteries supplying the brain include the:
1. brachiocephalic artery
2. common carotid arteries
3. vertebral arteriesCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Major branches of the common carotid arteries (internal carotids) function to supply the anterior brain, while the posterior brain is supplied by the vertebral arteries (branches of the subclavian arteries). The brachiocephalic (innominate) artery is unpaired and is one of three branches of the aortic arch, from which the right common carotid artery is derived. The left common carotid artery comes directly off the aortic arch.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement(s) is true regarding lower extremity venography?
1. the patient is often examined in the semierect position
2. tourniquets are used to force contrast medium into the deep veins
3. all radiographs are AP projectionsCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
To increase the concentration of contrast medium in the deep veins of the leg, a Fowler’s position is used with the table angle of approximately 45◦. Tourniquets can also be used to force the contrast into the deep veins of the leg. Imaging may be performed with or without fluoroscopy and may include anteroposterior (AP), lateral, and 30◦ obliques of the lower leg in internal rotation.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 pointsThe apex of the heart is formed by the:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The heart wall is made up of the external epicardium, the middle myocardium, and the internal endocardium. The pericardium is the fibroserous sac enclosing the heart and roots of the great vessels. The heart has four chambers. The two upper chambers are the atria, and the two lower chambers are the ventricles. The apex of the heart is the tip of the left ventricle.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 pointsThe type of dose–response curve used to predict stochastic effects is the:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The linear nonthreshold curve is used to illustrate responses such as leukemia, cancer, and genetic effects. These are also referred to as stochastic effects. Stochastic effects occur randomly and are “all-or-nothing” type effects; that is, they do not occur with degrees of severity. Remember that in a nonthreshold curve there is no safe dose, that is, no dose below which there will definitely be no biologic response. Theoretically, even one x-ray photon can cause a biologic response. The linear nonthreshold curve is the curve of choice to predict effects of low level (e.g., medical and occupational) exposure to ionizing radiation
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 pointsA dose of 0.25 Gy or 25 rad to the fetus during the 3rd or 4th week of pregnancy is more likely to cause which of the following:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
During the first trimester,specifically the 2nd to 8th week of pregnancy (during major organogenesis), if the radiation dose is at least 0.2 Gy or 20 rad,fetal anomalies can be produced. Skeletal anomalies usually appear if irradiation occurs in the early part of this time period, and neurologic anomalies are formed in the latter part; mental retardation and childhood malignant diseases, such as cancers or leukemia, can also result from irradiation during the first trimester. Fetal irradiation during the second and third trimesters is not likely to produce anomalies, but rather, with sufficient dose, some type of childhood malignant disease.Fetal irradiation during the first 2 weeks of gestation can result in spontaneous abortion.
It must be emphasized that the likelihood of producing fetal anomalies at doses below
0.2 Gy or 20 rad is exceedingly small and that most general diagnostic examinations are likely to deliver fetal doses of less than 0.01–0.02 Gy or 1–2 rad. -
Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 pointsLinear energy transfer (LET) is:
1. a method of expressing radiation quality
2. a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue
3. absorption of polyenergetic radiationCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
When biologic material is irradiated, there are a number of modifying factors that determine what kind and how much response will occur in the biologic material. One of these
factors is LET, which expresses the rate at which particulate or photon energy is transferred to the absorber. Because different kinds of radiation have different degrees of penetration in different materials, it is also a useful way of expressing the quality of the radiation. -
Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 pointsWhat is the effect on relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) as linear energy transfer (LET) decreases?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
LET expresses the rate at which photon or particulate energy is transferred to (absorbed by) biologic material (through ionization processes) and is dependent on radiation type and tissue absorption characteristics. RBE describes the degree of response or amount of biologic change we can expect of the irradiated material, and is directly related to LET. As the amount of transferred energy (LET) increases (from interactions occurring between radiation and biological material), the amount of biologic effect or damage (RBE) will also increase; as the amount of LET decreases, the RBE will also decrease.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 pointsThe effects of radiation to biologic material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The effects of a quantity of radiation delivered to a body is dependent on a few factors, including the amount of radiation received, the size of the irradiated area, and how the radiation is delivered in time. If the radiation is delivered in portions over a period of time, it is said to be fractionated and has a less harmful effect than if the radiation was delivered all at once. Cells have an opportunity to repair and some recovery occurs between doses.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following account(s) for x-ray beam heterogeneity?
1. incident electrons interacting with several layers of tungsten targeatoms
2. electrons moving to fill different shell vacancies
3. its nuclear originCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The x-ray photons produced at the tungsten target comprise a heterogeneous beam, that is, a spectrum of photon energies. This is accounted for by the fact that the incident electrons have different energies. Also, the incident electrons travel through several layers of tungsten target material, lose energy with each interaction, and therefore produce increasingly weaker x-ray photons. During characteristic x-ray production, vacancies may be filled in the K, L, orM
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 pointsWhat is used to account for the relative radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs:
1. tissue weighting factors (Wt)
2. radiation weighting factors (Wr)
3. absorbed doseCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The tissue weighting factor (Wt) represents the relative tissue radiosensitivity of irradiatedmaterial (e.g., muscle vs. intestinal epithelium vs. bone, etc.). The radiation weighting factor (Wr) is a number assigned to different types of ionizing radiations to better determine their effect on tissue (e.g., x-ray vs. alpha particles). The Wr of different ionizing radiations is dependent on the LET of that particular radiation. The following formula is used to determine effective dose (EfD).
Effective dose (EfD) =
Radiation weighting factor (Wr) × Tissue weighting factor(Wt)×Absorbed dose -
Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 pointsHow are wavelength and energy related?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Frequency and wavelength areclosely associated with the relative energy of electromagnetic radiations. More energetic radiations have shorter wavelengths and higher frequency; thus, they are inversely related. The relationship between frequency, wavelength, and energy is illustrated in the electromagnetic spectrum . Some radiations are energetic enough to rearrange atoms in materials through which they pass, and can therefore be hazardous to living tissue.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 pointsThe beam of x-ray photons leaving the x-ray tube focus can be described as having what sort of nature?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Electrons may undergo any one of a few types of interactions as they encounter the target. The emitted photons can therefore have a variety of energies and thus are termed heterogeneous or polyenergetic. It is only at extremely high energies that photon energy becomes more homogeneous; only gamma radiation can be accurately termed homogeneous or monoenergetic.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 pointsLong-term effects of radiation exposure include:
1. formation of cataracts
2. cancer
3. genetic effectsCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Occupationally exposed individuals are concerned principally with late (i.e., longterm or delayed) effects of radiation, such as genetic effects, leukemia, cancers, and cataractogenesis, which can occur many years following initial exposure to low levels of ionizing radiation. These long-term, or delayed, effects are represented by the linear, nonthreshold, dose–response curve, with the exception of cataractogenesis, which irepresented by the linear, threshold, dose–response curve. An acute dose of approximately 200 rad would be required to cause radiogenic cataracts. A far greater occupational (i.e., fractionated) dose of approximately 1000 rad would be required to induce cataracts.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is (are) a feature(s) of x-ray equipment, designed especially to eliminate unnecessary radiation to the patient?
1. filtration
2. minimum SSD of 12 inches
3. collimator accuracyCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
According to NCRP regulations, radiographic and fluoroscopic equipment must havea total Al filtration of at least 2.5 mm Al equivalent whenever the equipment is operated at 70 kV or greater, to reduce excessive exposure to low-energy radiation. Collimator and beam alignment must be accurate to within 2% for manual, 4% for PBL. The SSD must not be less than 12 inches for all procedures other than dental radiography. Distance is the single best protection from radiation. Excessively short SIDs/SSDs cause a significant increase in patient skin dose
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 pointsThe quality assurance term used to describe consistency in output intensity from one exposure to the next is:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Equipment must be properly calibrated to produce consistently predictable results; specifically, the equipment must have linearity and reproducibility. Linearity refers to consistency in exposure with adjacent mA stations (very similar to reciprocity law) and exposure
times adjusted to produce the same mAs. Reproducibility refers to consistency in exposure output during repeated exposures at a particular setting. Positive beam limitation (PBL) is automatic
collimation. The two types of automatic exposure control (AEC) are the photomultiplier and ionization chamber. -
Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 pointsHow does filtration affect the primary beam?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
X-rays produced at the target comprise a heterogeneous primary beam. Filtration serves to eliminate the softer, less-penetrating photons leaving an x-ray beam of higher average energy. Filtration is important in patient protection because unfiltered, low-energy photons not energetic enough to reach the image receptor are absorbed by the body and contribute to total patient dose.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 pointsAll of the following affect patient dose, except:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Inherent filtration is composed of materials that are a permanent part of the tube housing; that is, the glass envelope of the x-ray tube and the oil coolant. Added filtration, usually
thin sheets of aluminum, is present to make a total of 2.5 mm Al equivalent for equipment
operated above 70 kV. Filtration is used to decrease patient dose by removing the weak x-rays having no value but contributing to skin dose. According to the inverse square law of radiation, exposure dose increases as distance from the source decreases, and vice versa. The effect of the focal spot size is principally on radiographic detail, having no effect on patient dose. -
Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following groups of exposure factors will deliver the greatest amount of exposure to the patient?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
mAs regulates the quantity of radiation delivered to the patient. kV regulates the quality (penetration) of the radiation delivered to the patient. The higher the mAs, the greater
the patient dose. Higher energy (more penetrating) radiation—which is more likely to exit the patient—accompanied by a lower mAs is the safest combination for the patient. -
Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 pointsThe principal function of x-ray beam filtration is to:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
It is our ethical responsibility to minimize radiation dose to our patients. X-rays produced at the target comprise a heterogeneous primary beam. There are many “soft” (low-energy photons that, if not removed, would contribute to only greater patient dose. They are too weak to penetrate the patient and expose the image receptor; they just penetrate a small thickness of tissue and are absorbed. Filters, usually made of aluminum, are used in radiography to reduce patient dose by removing this low-energy radiation, resulting in an x-ray beam of higher average energy. Total filtration is composed of inherent filtration plus added filtration.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 pointsPatient dose can be decreased by using:
1. high speed film and screen combination
2. high ratio grids
3. air-gap techniqueCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The higher the speed of the film and screen system, the smaller the dose of radiation required to produce a diagnostic radiograph. As one component of the effort to reduce population dose, rare eartphosphors are used almost exclusively today in general radiography, as they are at least four times faster than calcium tungstat phosphors. Grids, both stationary and moving, function to remove a large percentage of scattered (primarily Compton) radiation from the remnant beam before it reaches the image receptor,
thereby improving radiographic contrast. Because scattered radiation often makes significant contribution to the overall radiographic density, the addition of a grid (or an increase in the grid ratio) must be accompanied by an appropriate increase in exposure factors (usually mAs) to maintain adequate density. The improvement in image quality is usually more significant than the increased exposure to the patient
Air-gap technique functions similar to, or in place of, a grid. A distance is introduced between the patient and the image receptor. However, to maintain optimum recorded detail and avoid excessive magnification, the SID must be increased considerably, followed by a significant increase in mAs. -
Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are included in the types of gonadal shielding?
1. flat contact
2. shaped (contour) contact
3. shadowCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Gonadal shielding should be used whenever appropriate and possible during radiographic and fluoroscopic examinations. Flat contact shields (flat sheets of flexible leaded vinyl) are useful for recumbent studies, but when the examination necessitates that oblique, lateral, or erect projections be obtained, they become less efficient. Shaped contact (contour) shields are best because they enclose the male reproductive organs, remaining in oblique, lateral, and erect positions—but they can be used only for male patients. Shadow shields that attach to thetube head are particularly useful for surgical sterile fields.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 pointsThe advantages of beam restriction include:
1. production of less scattered radiation
2. irradiation of less biologic material
3. less total filtration is requiredCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
With greater beam restriction (i.e., smaller field size), less biologic material is irradiated, thereby reducing the possibility of harmful effects. If less tissue is irradiated, less scattered radiation is produced, resulting in improved image contrast. The total filtration is not a function of beam restriction, but rather, is a radiation protection guideline aimed at reducing patient skin dose.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 pointsA backup timer for the automatic exposure control serves to:
1. protect the patient from overexposure
2. protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat
3. eventually increase inherent filtrationCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
parallel plate ionization chamber consists of a radiolucent chamber just beneath the tabletop . As x-ray photons emerge from the patient, they enter the chamber and ionize the air within. When a predetermined quantity of ionization has occurred (as determined by the selected exposure factors), the exposure automatically terminates. In the phototimer, a small fluorescent screen is positioned beneath the cassette . When remnant radiation emerging from the patient exits the cassette, the exposure is terminated. The manual timer
should be used as backup timer, in case the AEC fails to terminate the exposure, thus protecting the patient from overexposure and the x-ray tube from excessive heat load. The backup timer is unrelated to filtration. -
Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 pointsThe use of optimum kV for small, medium, and large body parts is the premise of:
Correct
The optimum kV (or fixed kV) technique separates patients into small, medium, and large categories, and assigns an optimum (or best) kV for that particular body part. Patient thicknes(measurement in centimeters) determines mAs. This method of establishing exposure
factors results in less variation in the scale of contrast than the variable kV method of technique selection.Incorrect
Explanation:
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 pointsThe function(s) of automatic beam limitation devices include:
1. increasing contrast resolution
2. absorption of scattered radiation
3. changing the quality of the x-ray beamCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Beam restrictors function to limit size of the irradiated field. In doing so, they limit the volume of tissue irradiated (thereby decreasing the percentage of scattered radiation generated in the part) and help reduce patient dose. Because less scattered radiation is produced, less fog affects the x-ray image thus improving contrast resolution. Beam restrictors do not affect the quality (energy) of the x-ray beam, that is, the function of kV and filtration. Beam restrictors do not absorb scattered radiation, that is, a function of grids.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 pointsWhat transforms the violet light emitted by the PSP into the image seen on the CRT?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The exposed IR is placed into the CR reader, where the PSP screen is automatically removed. The latent image appears as the PSP is scanned by a narrow high-intensity helium–neon laser, or solid-state laser, to obtain the pixel data. As the PSP is scanned in the CR reader, it releases a violet light—a process referred to as photostimulated luminescence. The luminescent light is converted to electrical energy representing the analog image. The
electrical energy is sent to an analog-to-digital converter (ADC) where it is digitized and becomes the digital image that is eventually displayed (after a short delay) on a high-resolution monitor and/or printed out by a laser printer. The digitized images can also be manipulated in postprocessing, electronically transmitted, and stored/archived. -
Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 pointsThe sensitometric curve is used to illustrate the relationship between the:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The sensitometric (or Hurter and Driffield [H&D]) curve is used to illustrate the relationship
between the exposure given to the film and the resulting density. The relationship between the source-to-image-receptor distance and resulting density is expressed in the inverse square law of radiation. The effect of kV on contrast can be illustrated using a penetrometer
(aluminum step-wedge). -
Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 pointsWhat portion of an IP records the CR image?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Inside the IP is the photostimulable phosphor (PSP) image storage plate. This PSP withits layer of europium-activated barium fluorohalide serves as the image receptor as it is exposed in the traditional manner and receives the latent image. The PSP can store the latent image for several hours; after approximately 8 hours, noticeable image fading will occur. Once the CR cassette is placed into the CR reader, the PSP screen is automatically removed. The latent image on the PSP is changed to a manifest image as it is scanned by a narrow high intensity helium–neon, or solid state, (monochromatic) laser to obtain the pixel data. As the PSP is scanned in the reader,it releases (polychromatic) violet light—a process referred to as photo- (or light-)stimulated luminescence.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 pointsImage fading in CR can occur if:
1. unexposed PSPs are unused for extended periods
2. exposed PSPs are not processed soon after exposure
3. exposed PSPs are exposed to high temperaturesCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Image “fading” will occur if there is delay in reading the IP/PSP. This is because after a time, trapped photo electrons are released from the “color center” and are therefore unable to participate in PSL. PSL intensity decreases in the interval between x-ray exposure and image reading/processing. If the exposed PSL is not delivered to the reader/processor for 8 hours, PSL decreases by approximately 25%. Fading also increases as environmental temperature increases. Since PSPs are very sensitive to exposure/fogging, when unexposed IPs are unused for extended periods, they should be erased before use.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 pointsIf a part measuring 15 cm was imaged using 12 mAs and 72 kV, a similar part measuring 17 cm could be correctly exposed using:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Using the variable kV method, a particular mAs is assigned to each body part. As part thickness increases, the kV (penetration) is also increased. The body part being imaged must be carefully measured and for each centimeter increase in thickness, 2 kV is added to the exposure.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following can be used to determine the sensitivity of a particular film emulsion?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The sensitometric curve is used to show the relationship between the exposure given
the film and the resulting film density. It can therefore be used to evaluate a particular film emulsion’s response (speed, sensitivity) by determining how long it takes to record a particular density. A dose–response curve is used in radiation protection and illustrates the quantity of dose required to produce a particular effect. The reciprocity law states that a particular mAs, regardless of the combination of mA and time, should produce the same degree of blackening. The inverse square law illustrates the relationship between distance and radiation intensity -
Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 pointsThe x-ray detection system that does not have a scintillation component is:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
In both indirect-capture flat-panel detector methods scintillation light is captured, read by a photodetector (CCD or TFT), changed to an electronic signal, and transmitted to the ADC for digitization. In direct-capture flat-panel detector systems, x-ray energy is converted to an
electrical signal in a single layer of material such as the semiconductor a-Se. Electric charges are applied to both surfaces of the a-Se, electron-hole pairs are created, and charges are read by TFT arrays located on the surfaces. The electrical signal is transferred to the ADC. The number
of TFTs is equal to the number of image pixels. Thus, the direct-capture system eliminates the scintillator step required in indirect DR. -
Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase in exposure factors?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Because pneumoperitoneum is an abnormal accumulation of air or gas in the peritoneal cavity, it would require a decrease in exposure factors. Obstructed bowel usually involves distended, gas-filled bowel loops, again requiring a decrease in exposure factors. With ascites, there is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, necessitating an increase in exposure factors. Renal colic is the pain associated with the passage of renal calculi; usually no change from the normal exposure factors is required.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 pointsThe developer temperature in a 90-second automatic processor is usually approximately:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The advantages of automatic processors are quicker, more efficient operation, and consistent
results. Quicker operation is attained with increased solution temperatures. The usual temperature of a 90-second developer is 90◦F to 95◦F. Excessively high developer temperature can cause chemical fog. -
Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 pointsThe exposed PSP is subjected to a narrow laser beam:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Computed radiography uses special detector plates inside cassettes to record the radiologic image. No film is used, hence the term filmless radiography. The CR cassette is exposed just like a conventional screen–film cassette. Upon exposure, a latent image is produced on the photostimulable phosphor (PSP) screen, which is located inside the IP. The IP is placed in the CR processor, and the PSP is automatically removed. A special reader scans the PSP with a narrow laser beam to obtain the pixel data, which can then be displayed on a monitor as the
radiographic image. -
Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 pointsThe histogram demonstration of pixel value distribution can be changed/affected by the following:
1. selection of processing algorithm
2. processing delay
3. centeringCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Histogram appearance can be affected by a number of things. Positioning and centering accuracy can have a significant effect on histogram appearance. Other factors affecting histogram appearance include selection of the correct processing algorithm (e.g., chest vs.
femur), changes in scatter, SID, OID, and collimation. In short, anything that affects scatter and/or dose. Another factor affecting histogram appearance is delay in processing from time of exposure. Processing delay can result in fading of the image. -
Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 pointsThe amount of replenishment solution added to the automatic processor is determined by:
1. size of the film
2. position of film on tray feeding into processor
3. length of time required for film to enter processorCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
When a film first enters the processor from the feed tray, a microswitch signals the replenishment pump to begin sending replenisher solution into the processor. Replenishment
continues until the microswitch senses the end (edge) of the film and terminates pump action. So, as long as film is being fed into the processor, replenishment solution will be added. There is, therefore, more replenisher added with larger size films. There is also more replenisher added when rectangular films are fed into the processor “the long way” because the processor is
sensing, for example, 17 inches of film rather than 14 inches of film. Film should be put through
the processor consistently according to the particular department’s preference or routine. A change in film direction can lead to over- or underreplenishment and, hence, a change in film density. -
Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 pointsTypes of postprocessing of electronic/digital images include:
1. image stitching
2. contrast enhancement
3. windowingCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The radiographer can manipulate, that is, change and enhance, the digital image displayed on the monitor through postprocessing. One way to alter image contrast and/or density is through windowing. Windowing refers to some change made to window width and/or window level, i.e. a change in the LUT. Change in window width affects change in the number
of gray shades, that is, image contrast. Change in window level affects change in the image
brightness, that is, optical density. Therefore, windowing and other postprocessing mechanisms permit the radiographer to affect changes in the image and to produce “special effects” such as contrast enhancement, edge enhancement, image stitching (useful in scoliosis examinations), and image inversion, rotation, and reversal. -
Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 pointsWhat is the likely cause of film emerging from the automatic processor in a damp condition?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
If the fixer fails to sufficiently reharden the gelatin emulsion, water will remain within the still-swollen emulsion. The dryer mechanism will be unable to completely rid the emulsion of wash water, and the film will emerge from the processor damp and tacky. On the other hand, excessive hardening action may produce brittle radiographs. High air velocity usually encourages more complete drying. Unbalanced processing temperatures can result in blistering of the emulsion.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 pointsThe invisible latent image is converted into a visible manifest image in the:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The invisible silver halide image is composed of exposed silver grains. These are “reduced” to a visible black metallic silver image in the developer solution. The fixer solution functions to remove unexposed silver halide crystals from the film.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 pointsPoor storage or handling practices that can result in film fog include:
1. outdated film
2. exposure to excessive temperatures
3. exposure to chemical fumesCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
All of those effects listed can result from poor storage practices. Film should be rotated with the oldest being used first to avoid fog from outdated film. By protecting film from chemical fumes and from excessive temperatures, fogging of the sensitive emulsion is prevented
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following devices functions to produce hard copies of digital images?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Conventional screen–film images can be scanned and digitized by a special machine called a film digitizer. Interpretation of digital images is made from the display monitor; this is referred to as “soft copy display.” “Hard copies” can be made with a laser printer. A laser camera records the displayed image by exposing a film with laser light; it can also record several images on one film. The laser printer is connected for processing of the images
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 pointsA CR histogram is a graphic representation of:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
As in traditional radiography, numerous density values represent various tissue densities, for example, bone, muscle, fat, blood-filled organs, air/gas, metal, contrast media, pathologic processes, etc. In CR, the CR scanner recognizes these numerous values and constructsa gray-scale histogram of these values represented in the imaged part. A histogram is a graphic representation defining all these values. The radiographer selects a processing algorithm by selecting the anatomical part and particular projection on the computer. The CR unit then matches that information with a particular Lookup Table (LUT)—a characteristic curve that best matches the anatomical part being imaged. Hence, histogram analysis and use of the appropriate LUT together function to produce predictable image quality in CR.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 pointsAdvantages of digital radiography (computed radiography) include all of the following, except the ability to:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
All other factors can be changed in the computer to manipulate the image. Geometric detail is controlled only by source-to-image-receptor distance (SID), object-to image-receptor distance (OID), and focal spot size. These factors are fixed during the x-ray exposure.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 pointsA three-phase timer can be tested for accuracy using a synchronous spinning top. The resulting image looks like a:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
When a spinning top is used to test the efficiency of a single-phase timer, the result is a series of dots or dashes, with each dot or dash representing a pulse of radiation. With full-wave rectified current, and a possible 1/20 dots (pulses) available per second, one should visualize 12 dots at 1/10 second, 24 dots at 1/5 second, 6 dots at 1/20 second, and so on. But because three-phase equipment is almost constant potential, a synchronous spinning top must be used, and the result is a solid arc (rather than dots). The number of degrees formed by the arc is measured and equated to a particular exposure time. A multitude of small mesh-like squares describes a screen contact test. An aluminum step-wedge (penetrometer) may be used
to demonstrate the effect of kV on contrast (demonstrating a series of gray tones from white to black), with a greater number of grays demonstrated at higher kV levels. -
Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 pointsIn the production of Bremsstrahlung radiation, the incident electron:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Bremsstrahlung (or Brems) radiation is one of the two kinds of x-rays produced at the tungsten target of the x-ray tube. The incident high-speed electron, passing through a tungsten atom, is attracted by the positively charged nucleus; therefore, it is deflected from its course with a resulting loss of energy. This energy loss is given up in the form of an x-ray photon
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following will occur as a result of decreasing the anode target angle?
1. anode heel effect will be less pronounced
2. effective focal spot size will decrease
3. greater photon intensity toward the cathode side of the x-ray tubeCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Target angle has a pronounced geometric effect on the effective, or projected, focal spot size. As target angle decreases (i.e., gets steeper or smaller), the effective (projected) focal spot becomes smaller. This is advantageous because it will improve radiographic detail without creating a heat-loading crisis at the anode (as would be the case if the actual focal spot size were reduced to produce a similar detail improvement). There are disadvantages, however.With a smaller target angle the anode heel effect increases; photons are more noticeably absorbed by the “heel” of the anode, resulting in a smaller percentage of x-ray photons at the anode end of the x-ray beam and a concentration of x-ray photons at the cathode end of the image.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following image matrix sizes will result in the best resolution?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
A digital image is formed by a matrix of pixels in rows and columns. A matrix having 512 pixels in each row and column is a 512×512 matrix. As in traditional radiography, spatial
resolution is measured in line pairs per mm (lp/mm). As matrix size is increased, there are more and smaller pixels in the matrix, which means improved resolution. Fewer and larger pixels result in a poor resolution “pixelly” image, that is, one that you can actually see the individual pixel boxes -
Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 pointsThe device used to ensure reproducible images, regardless of tissue density variations, is the:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Radiographic reproducibility is an important concept in producing high-quality diagnostic films. Radiographic results should be consistent and predictable, not only in positioning accuracy but with respect to exposure factors as well. Automatic exposure devices (phototimers and ionization chambers) automatically terminate the x-ray exposure once a predetermined quantity of x-ray has penetrated the patient, thus ensuring consistent results.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 pointsChanges in window width in digital imaging result in changes in:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
One advantage of computed radiography is the ability to manipulate the image after
exposure (“postprocessing”). Image manipulation postprocessing can be used for windowing, contrast and/or density modification, or image subtraction.
Windowing is a process of changing the contrast and density setting on the finished image. The window width controls the number of shades of gray in the image (contrast), while the
window level corresponds to the image density. -
Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 pointsIf the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer is supplied by 220 V and has 150 turns, and the secondary coil has 75,000 turns; what is the voltage induced in the secondary coil?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The high-voltage, or step-up, transformer functions to increase voltage to the necessary kilovoltage. It decreases the amperage to milliamperage. The amount of increase or decrease depends on the transformer ratio, that is, the number of turns in the primary coil to the number of turns in the secondary coil. The transformer law is as follows:
To Determine Secondary V To Determine Secondary I
Vs/Vp= Ns/ Np
I s/I p =Vp/VsSubstituting known values,
x/220 =75000/150
150x = 16 500 000
x = 110000 V (= 110 kV) -
Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of self induction?
1. autotransformer
2. choke coil
3. high-voltage transformerCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The principle of self-induction is an example of the second law of electromagnetics (Lenz’s law), which states that an induced current within a conductive coil will oppose the
direction of the current that induced it. It is important to note that self-induction is a characteristic of AC only.The fact that AC constantly changes direction accounts for opposing currents set up in the coil. Two x-ray circuit devices operate on the principle of self-induction: The
autotransformer operates on the principle of self-induction and enables the radiographer to vary the kilovoltage. The choke coil also operates on the principle of self-induction; it is a type of variable resistor that may be used to regulate filament current. The high-voltage transformer operates on the principle of mutual induction. -
Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement(s) regarding transformer laws is (are) correct?
1. the voltage and current values are increased with a step-up transformer
2. the voltage is directly related to the number of turns in the two coils
3. the product of voltage and current in the two circuits must be equalCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Transformers are used in the x-ray circuit to change the value of the supplied voltage to a value appropriate for the production of x-rays. Although the incoming voltage supply may be 220 V, thousands of volts are required for the production of x-rays. A step-up transformer consists of two coils, a primary and a secondary, in close proximity to each other (e.g., side by side). As the primary coil is supplied with AC, a magnetic field rises up around the coil and proceeds to “cut” the secondary coil. Because the current supply is AC, the magnetic field is constantly expanding and contracting (rising and falling) and continuously “cutting” the secondary coil. This interaction between magnetic field and conductive coils induces a current in the secondary coil proportional to the number of turns in the secondary coil. As the number of turns in the secondary coil increases, so does the induced voltage. However, because we cannot just create energy, only change its form, the amperage in the second coil is proportionally less. For example, if the voltage in the secondary coil increased 10 times, the current would decrease by a factor of 10. Therefore, in keeping with the law of conservation of energy, the product of the voltage and current in one coil must equal the product of voltage and current in the second coil.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 pointsRadiographs from a particular three-phase, full-wave rectified x-ray unit were underexposed, using known correct exposures. A synchronous spinning-top test was performed
using 100 mA, 1/20 second, and 70 kV, and a 12-degree arc is observed on the test film. Which of the following is most likely the problem?Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
A synchronous spinning top test is used to test timer accuracy or rectifier function in three-phase equipment.Because three-phase,full-wave rectified current would expose a 360 degree arc per second, a 1/20-second exposure should expose an 18-degree arc. Anything more or less indicates timer inaccuracy. If exactly one-half of the expected arc appears, one should suspect rectifier failure.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following refers to a regular program of evaluation that ensures proper functioning of x-ray equipment, thereby protecting both patients and radiation workers?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Sensitometry and densitometry are used in evaluation of the film processor, just one part of a complete quality assurance (QA) program. Modulation transfer function (MTF) is used to express spatial resolution, which is another component of the QA program. A complete QA program includes testing of all components of the imaging system: processors, focal spot, x-ray timers, filters, intensifying screens, beam alignment, and so on.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is used to evaluate focal spot size?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Focal spot size accuracy is directly related to the degree of geometric blur, that is, as focal spot size increases, blur increases. Manufacturer tolerance for new focal spots is 50% and focal spot size can increase in size as the x-ray tube ages; hence, the importance of testing
new focal spots and periodic testing to monitor any focal spot changes. Focal spot size can be measured with a pinhole camera, slit camera, or star-pattern–type resolution device. The pinhole camera and slit camera measure the physical size of the focal spot, while the star pattern measures focal spot size as a function of resolution/geometric blur.
Perfect film–screen contact is essential to recorded detail and is evaluated with a wiremesh test. A spinning-top test is used to evaluate timer accuracy and rectifier operation. A penetrometer (aluminum step-wedge) is used to illustrate the effect of kV on contrast. -
Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is usually recommended for cleaning PSPs?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
CR PSPs should be cleaned monthly. It is important that anhydrous ethanol be used for cleaning most CR PSPs. A small amount of anhydrous ethanol is placed on a lint-free cloth for cleaning and removal of any dust or other particles. Water and remnant moisture must not be used as it can cause phosphor swelling. Dust on PSPs has the same effect as dust on intensifying screens—a clear pinhole artifact. PSPs should also be checked for physical damage. Scratches will appear as clear areas on the resulting image. CR IPs should be visually checked for physical damage; inserting a damaged CR IP into the reader can result in mechanical failure and system shutdown.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 pointsProper care of leaded apparel includes:
1. periodic check for cracks
2. careful folding following each use
3. routine laundering with soap and waterCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Protective lead aprons and gloves are made of lead impregnated vinyl or leather. They should be checked for cracks radiographically from time to time. Otherwise, minimal care is required. Lead aprons and gloves should always be hung on appropriate hangers. Glove
supports permit air to circulate within the glove. Apron hangers provide convenient storage without folding. If lead aprons are folded (or just left in a heap!), cracks are more likely to form. If lead aprons or gloves become soiled, cleaning with a damp cloth and appropriate solution is all that is required. Excessive moisture should be avoided. -
Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 pointsPeriodic equipment calibration includes testing of the:
1. focal spot
2. mA
3. kVCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Radiographic results should be consistent and predictable not only in positioning accuracy but with respect to exposure factors and image sharpness as well. X-ray equipment should be calibrated periodically as part of an ongoing QA program. The quantity (mAs) and quality (kV) of the primary beam have a big impact on the quality of the finished radiograph.
The focal spot should be tested periodically to evaluate its impact on image sharpness -
Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 pointsThe spinning-top test can be used to evaluate:
1. timer accuracy
2. rectifier failure
3. effect of kV on contrastCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The spinning-top test is used to evaluate timer accuracy or rectifier failure.With singlephase, full-wave rectified equipment (120 pulses per second) for example, 12 dots should be visualized when using the 1/10-second station. A few more or less indicate timer inaccuracy. If
the test demonstrated six dots, one might suspect rectifier failure.With three-phase equipment a special synchronous spinning top (or oscilloscope) is used and a solid black arc is obtained rather than dots. The length of this arc is measured and compared with the known correct arc. -
Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following contribute(s) to inherent filtration?
1. x-ray tube glass envelope
2. x-ray tube port window
3. aluminum between tube housing and collimatorCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Inherent filtration is that which is “built into” the construction of the x-ray tube. Before exiting the x-ray tube, x-ray photons must pass through the tube’s glass envelope and port window; the photons are filtered somewhat as they do so. This inherent filtration is usually the equivalent of 0.5 mm Al. Aluminum filtration placed between the x-ray tube housing and collimator is added to contribute to the total necessary requirement of 2.5 mm Al equivalent. The collimator itself is considered part of the added filtration (1.0 mm Al equivalent) because of the silver surface of the mirror within. It is important to remember that as aluminum filtration is added to the x-ray tube, the HVL increases.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 pointsBy which of the following can poor screen–film contact be caused?
1. damaged cassette frame
2. foreign body in cassette
3. warped cassette frontCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Perfect contact between the intensifying screens and film is essential to maintain image sharpness. Any separation between them allows diffusion of fluorescent light and subsequent
blurriness and loss of detail. Screen–film contact can be diminished if the cassette frame is damaged and misshapen, if the front is warped, or if there is a foreign body between the
screens elevating them. -
Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 pointsA quality assurance program includes checks on which of the following radiographic equipment conditions?
1. reproducibility
2. linearity
3. positive beam limitationCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The accuracy of all three is important to ensure adequate patient protection. Reproducibility means that repeated exposures at a given technique must provide consistent intensity. Linearity means that a given mAs, using different mA stations with appropriate exposure time adjustments, will provide consistent intensity. Positive beam limitation (PBL) is automatic collimation and must be accurate to 2% of the source-to-image-receptor distance (SID). Light-localized collimators must be available and must be accurate to within 2%.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 pointsRequired components of a digital fluoroscopy system include:
1. computer
2. video monitor
3. image manipulation consoleCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The advantages of digital fluoroscopy (DF) over conventional fluoroscopy include higher-speed acquisition and availability of postprocessing for image/contrast enhancement.
Although DF appears fundamentally the same as conventional fluoroscopy, DF has special
requirements: a computer, two video monitors, and an operating console that is far more complex than the conventional console. A computer is located between the TV camera (or CCD) and the TV monitor and serves to convert the analog image to a digital image. The operating console has many special function keys for patient data entry, for data acquisition, image display, and image postprocessing manipulation. Two video monitors are required—the second monitor is for display of the subtracted image -
Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 pointsWhat is used to account for the relative radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs?
1. radiation weighting factors (Wr)
2. tissue weighting factors (Wt)
3. absorbed doseCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The tissue weighting factor (Wt) represents the relative tissue radio sensitivity of irradiated material (e.g., muscle vs. intestinal epithelium vs. bone, etc.). The radiation weighting factor (Wr) is a number assigned to different types of ionizing radiations in order to better determine their effect on tissue (e.g., x-ray vs. alpha particles). The Wr of different ionizing radiations is dependent on the LET of that particular radiation. The following formula is used to determine effective dose (E): Effective dose (E) = radiation weighting factor (Wr) × tissue
weighting factor (Wt) × absorbed dose -
Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 pointsPhotostimulable luminescence occurs when the PSL is exposed to:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The PSP screen within the IP has a layer of europium-activated barium fluorohalide (BaFX:Eu2+; X = Halogen) mixed with a binder substance. This layer serves as the image receptor when exposed to x-rays. Just under the barium fluorohalide layer is first a reflective
layer, then the base, then an antistatic layer and finally a layer of lead foil to absorb backscatter. Over the top of the barium fluorohalide is a protective layer. When the barium fluorohalide absorbs x-ray energy, electrons are released and they divide into two groups. One electron
group initiates immediate luminescence during the excited state of Eu2+. The other electron group becomes trapped within the phosphor’s halogen ions, forming a “color center.” These are the phosphors that ultimately form the radiographic image because when exposed to a monochromatic (often infrared) laser light source these phosphors emit polychromatic light,
termed photostimulate luminescence (PSL) -
Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 pointsStructures located in the LUQ of the average adult include:
1. ascending colon
2. spleen
3. pancreatic tailCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The abdomen is divided into quadrants: RUQ, RLQ, LUQ, and LLQ. Structures located in the LUQ of the average adult include the left kidney and suprarenal gland, stomach, spleen, splenic flexure, and tail of the pancreas. The ascending colon is located in the right lower quadrant
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 pointsWhen reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine range?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Creatinine is a normal alkaline constituent of urine and blood, but increased quantities of creatinine are present in advanced stages of renal disease. Creatinine and BUN (blood urea nitrogen) blood chemistry levels should be checked prior to beginning an examination requiring the use of an iodinated contrast agent. Increased levels may forecast increased possibility of contrast media–induced renal effects and poor visualization of the renal collecting systems. Normal creatinine range is 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL. Normal BUN range is 8 to 25 mg/100
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 pointsSymptoms of imminent anaphylactic shock include:
1. dysphagia
2. itching of palms and soles
3. constriction of the throatCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Adverse reactions to the intravascular administration of iodinated contrast are not uncommon, and although the risk of a life-threatening reaction is relatively rare, the radiographer must be alert to recognize and deal effectively should a serious reaction occur. Minor reaction is characterized by flushed appearance and nausea, occasionally vomiting and a few hives. Early symptoms of a possible anaphylactic reaction include constriction of the throat, possibly caused by laryngeal edema, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), and itching of the palms and soles. The radiographer must maintain the patient’airway,summon the radiologist and call “code”.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are well demonstrated in the lateral position of the cervical spine?
1. intervertebral foramina
2. apophyseal joints
3. intervertebral jointsCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
The cervical intervertebral foramina lie 45 degrees to the midsagittal plane (and 15– 20 degrees to a transverse plane) and are therefore demonstrated in the oblique position.
Intervertebral joints are well visualized in the lateral projection of all the vertebral groups.
Cervical articular facets (forming apophyseal joints) are 90 degrees to the midsagittal plane and therefore are also well demonstrated in the lateral projection -
Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 pointsThe effects of radiation to biologic material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The effects of a quantity of radiation delivered to a body are dependent on the amount of radiation received, the size of the irradiated area, and how the radiation is delivered in time.
If the radiation is delivered in portions over a period of time, it is said to be fractionated and
has a less harmful effect than if the radiation was delivered all at once. Therefore, cells have an opportunity to repair and some recovery occurs between doses -
Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 pointsWhich ethical principle below is most closely related to truth telling?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Veracity is not only telling the truth, but also not practicing deception. Autonomy is the ethical principle related to the theory that patients have the right to decide what will or will not be done to them. Beneficence is related to the idea of doing good and being kind. Fidelity is faithfulness and loyalty
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 pointsSomatic effects of radiation refer to effects that are manifested:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Somatic effects of radiation refer to those effects experienced directly by the exposed individual such as erythema, epilation, and cataracts. Genetic effects of radiation exposure are caused by irradiation of the reproductive cells of the exposed individual and transmitted from
one generation to the next -
Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 pointsThe right colic flexure is formed by the junction of the:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The approximately 5-foot-long large intestine (colon) functions in the formation, transport,and evacuation of feces. The colon commences at the terminus of the small intestine;
its first portion is the sac-like cecum in the RLQ, located inferior to the ileocecal valve. The ascending colon is continuous with the cecum and is located along the right side of the abdominal cavity. It bends medially and anteriorly forming the right colic (hepatic) flexure. The colon traverses the abdomen as the transverse colon and bends posteriorly and inferiorly to form the left colic (splenic) flexure. The descending colon continues down the left side of the abdominal cavity and at about the level of the pelvic brim, in the left lower quadrant (LLQ), the colon moves medially to form the S-shaped sigmoid colon. The rectum, approximately 5 inches in length, lies between the sigmoid and anal canal -
Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following imaging procedures do not require the use of ionizing radiation to produce an image?
1. sonography
2. computerized tomography
3. magnetic resonance imagingCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Neither ultrasonography nor magnetic resonance imaging requires the use of ionizing radiation to produce an image. Computed axial tomography does require ionizing radiation to produce an image. Ultrasonography requires the use of high-frequency sound waves (ultrasound) to produce images of soft-tissue structures and certain blood vessels within the body.
Magnetic resonance imaging relies on the use of a very powerful magnet and specially designed coils that send and receive radio wave signals to produce the image -
Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 pointsAn abnormal passage between organs is a/an:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
A fistula is an abnormal tubelike passageway between organs or an organ and the surface. Fistulas can result from abscesses, injuries, malignancies, inflammation of neighboring tissues, and from ionizing radiation exposure. A polyp is a tumor with either a pedicle(pedunculated, or having a stalk) or a broad base (sessile), commonly found in vascular organs projecting inward from its mucosal wall. They are usually removed surgically because, although usually benign, they can become malignant.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 pointsSymptoms of shock include:
1. pallor and weakness
2. increased pulse rate
3. feverCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
A patient going into shock may exhibit pallor and weakness, a significant drop in blood pressure, and an increase in pulse rate. The patient may also experience apprehension and restlessness, and have cool, clammy skin. A radiographer recognizing these symptomsshould call them to the physician’s attention immediately. Fever is not associated with shock
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 pointsRed blood cells are formed in the:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The production of red blood cells is called erythropoiesis. This process takes place in the bone marrow of the extremities of long bone, pelvis, ribs, sternum, and vertebrae. Red blood cells have no nucleus and a life span of approximately 120 days. After red blood cells die, they are removed from circulation by phagocytic action in the liver and spleen
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 pointsThe term effective dose
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Every radiographic examination involves an entrance skin exposure (ESE), which can be determined fairly easily. It also involves a gonadal dose and marrow dose that, if needed, can
be calculated by the radiation physicist. If the ESE of a particular examination was calculated to
determine the equivalent whole-body dose, this is termed effective dose. For example, the ESE of a posteroanterior (PA) chest is approximately 70 mrem, while the effective dose is 10 mrem.The effective (whole-body) dose is much less because much of the body is not included in the primary beam -
Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 pointsWith the body in the erect position, the diaphragm moves
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
When the body is erect,the diaphragm is more easily moved to a lower position during inspiration. For this reason, chest radiography is performed erect to allow maximum
lung expansion. With the body in the supine position, the abdominal viscera exert greaterpressure on the diaphragm, and it usually assumes a position 2 to 4 inches higher than when erect -
Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 pointsWith all other factors constant, as a digital image’s matrix size increases:
1. pixel size decreases
2. resolution increases
3. pixel size increasesCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
A digital image is formed by a matrix of pixels (picture elements) in rows and columns.A matrix having 512 pixels in each row and column is a 512 × 512 matrix. The term field of
view is used to describe how much of the patient (e.g., 150-mm diameter) is included in the matrix. The matrix and/or field of view can be changed without affecting the other, but changes in either will change pixel size. As in traditional radiography, spatial resolution is measured in line pairs per millimeter (lp/mm). As matrix size is increased, there are more and smaller pixels in the matrix, therefore improved resolution -
Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 pointsDuring a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average
shape will usually demonstrate:
1. barium-filled fundus
2. double-contrast of distal stomach portions
3. barium-filled duodenum and pylorusCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
With the body in the anteroposterior (AP) recumbent position, barium flows easily into the fundus of the stomach, displacing it somewhat superiorly. The fundus, then, is filled with barium, while the air that had been in the fundus is displaced into the gastric body, pylorus, and duodenum, illustrating them in double-contrast fashion. Air contrast delineation of these structures allows us to see through the stomach, to retrogastric areas and structures. Bariumfilled duodenum and pylorus is best demonstrated in the right anterior oblique (RAO) position
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 pointsDuring a gastrointestinaexamination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will usually demonstrate:
1. barium-filled fundus
2. double-contrast of distal stomach portions
3. barium-filled duodenum and pylorusCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
An ambulatory patient is one who is able to walk with minimal or no assistance. Outpatients as well as many inpatients are usually ambulatory. Patients who are not ambulatory are usually transported to the radiology department via stretcher
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 pointsAn ambulatory patient is one who:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
An ambulatory patient is one who is able to walk with minimal or no assistance. Outpatients as well as many inpatients are usually ambulatory. Patients who are not ambulatory are usually transported to the radiology department via stretcher
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 pointsAdvantages of moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy include:
1. decreased SID
2. decreased patient dose
3. improved image qualityCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy reduces the distance between the x-ray tube (source) and the image intensifier (image receptor), that is,
the SID is reduced. It follows that the distance between the part being imaged (object) and the image intensifier (image receptor) is also reduced, that is, the OID is reduced -
Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 pointsThe exposure factors used for a particular nongrid radiograph were 400 mA, 0.02 second, and 90 kV. Another radiograph using an 8:1 grid is requested. Which of the following groups of factors is most appropriate?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The addition of a grid will help clean up the scatter radiation produced by higher kV, but it requires an mAs adjustment. According to the grid conversion factors listed below, the addition of an 8:1 grid requires that the original mAs be multiplied by a factor of 4:
No grid = 1 × original mAs
5:1 grid = 2 × original mAs
6:1 grid = 3 × original mAs
8:1 grid = 4 × original mAs
12:1 grid = 5 × original mAs
16:1 grid = 6 × original mAsThe adjustment therefore requires 32 mAs at 90 kV
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following factor(s) is (are) important in determining thickness of protective barriers?
1. distance between x-ray source and barrier
2. occupancy factor time
3. workload (mA-min/wk)Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The closer the x-ray source is to the barrier (wall), the greater the thickness necessary.Occupancy factor refers to the degree of occupancy of the room adjacent to the barrier; a stairway would require less shielding than a busy work area.Workload is important in determining barrier thickness and refers to the number of examinations performed in the x-ray room measured in mA-min/wk—the greater the number of examinations per week, the greater the barrier thickness required. Use factor is also important in determining barrier thickness, and refers to the amount of time x-rays are directed to a particular wall—the greater the amount of time, the greater the thickness required
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 pointsAn autoclave is used for:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
Sterilization is the complete elimination of all living microorganisms and can be
accomplished by several methods. Pressurized steam, in an autoclave, is probably the most familiar means of sterilization; the pressure allows higher temperatures to be achieved. Gas or chemical sterilization is used for items unable to withstand moisture and/or high temperatures.
Other methods of sterilization include dry heat, ionizing radiation, and microwaves(nonionizing radiation) -
Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 pointsWhen examining the fourth and fifth fingers in the lateral position, which side of the forearm should be closest to the image receptor?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
When examining the third through fifth fingers in the lateral position, the medial side of the forearm (ulnar side) should be closest to the image receptor. This minimizes magnification by achieving the shortest possible OID (object-to-image-receptor distance).The terms medial and lateral are identified while viewing the part in the anatomic position
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 pointsThe input phosphor of the image intensifier tube functions to convert:
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The image intensifier’s input phosphor receives the remnant radiation emerging fromthe patient and converts it into a fluorescent light image. Very close to the input phosphor, separated by a thin, transparent layer, is the photocathode. The photocathode is made of a photoemissive alloy, usually an antimony and cesium compound. The fluorescent light image strikes the photocathode and is converted to an electron image that is focused by the electrostatic lenses to the output phosphor
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 pointsRecorded detail can be improved by decreasing:
1. the SID
2. the OID
3. motion unsharpnessCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Minimizing magnification through the use of increased SID (source-to-imagereceptor distance) and decreased OID (object-to-image-receptor distance) functions to improve recorded detail. Decreasing focal spot size decreases blur, thereby increasing recorded detail. Motion, voluntary or involuntary, is most detrimental to good recorded detail. Although all other detail factors may be adjusted to maximize detail, if motion occurs during exposure, detail is lost. The most important ways to reduce the possibility of motion are by using the shortest possible exposure time, by careful patient instruction (for suspended respiration), and by adequate immobilization when necessary
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 pointsExamples of primary radiation barriers include:
1. x-ray room walls
2. control booth
3. lead apronsCorrect
Incorrect
Explanation:
Primary radiation barriers protect against direct exposure from the primary (useful) xray beam and have much greater attenuation capability than secondary barriers, which protect only from leakage and scattered radiation. Examples of primary barriers are the lead walls and doors of a radiographic room, that is, any surface that could be struck by the useful beam.Primary protective barriers of typical installations generally consist of walls with 1/16-inch (1.5 mm) lead thickness and 7-feet high.
Secondary radiation includes leakage and scattered radiation. The control booth wall is a secondary barrier; therefore, the primary beam must never be directed toward it. The x-ray tube housing must reduce leakage radiation to less than 100 mR/h at a distance of 1 meter from the housing. Lead aprons, lead gloves, portable x-ray barriers, and the like are also designed to protect the user from exposure to scattered radiation and will not protect from the primary beam. -
Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following formulas would the radiographer use to determine the total number of heat units produced with a given exposure using 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation:
The number of heat units produced during a given exposure with single-phase equipment is determined by multiplying mA × second × kV. Correction factors are required with three-phase equipment. Unless the equipment manufacturer specifies otherwise, three-phase, six-pulse heat units are determined by multiplying mA × second × kV × 1.35. Three-phase, 12-pulse heat units are determined by multiplying mA × second × kV × 1.41